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1Z0-052 self-study training
Free 1Z0-052 exam Questions and Answers
It is well known that 1Z0-052 exam test is the hot exam of Oracle certification. Exam Code: 1Z0-052, Exam Name: Oracle Database 11g: Administrator I : 1z1-052 Exam.
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1. View the Exhibit and examine the attributes of an undo tablespace. In an OLTP system, the user SCOTT has started a query on a large table in the peak transactional hour that performs bulk inserts. The query runs for more than 15 minutes and then SCOTT receives the following error: ORA-01555: snapshot too old What could be the reason for this error? A.The query is unable to get a read-consistent image. B.There is not enough space in Flash Recovery Area. C.There is not enough free space in the flashback archive. D.The query is unable to place data blocks in undo tablespace Answer: A 2. Which two statements are true about the Automatic Workload Repository (AWR)? (Choose two.) A.All AWR tables belong to the SYSTEM schema. B.The AWR contains systemwide tracing and logging information. C.The snapshots collected by the AWR are accessible through data dictionary views. D.The snapshots collected by the AWR are used by self-tuning components in the database. Answer: CD 3. While observing the index statistics, you find that an index is highly fragmented, thereby resulting in poor database performance. Which option would you use to reduce fragmentation without affecting the users who are currently using the index? A.Validate the index structure using the ANALYZE...INDEX command. B.Rebuild the index using the ALTER INDEX..REBUILD ONLINE command. C.Change the block space utilization parameters using the ALTER INDEX command. D.Deallocate the unused space in the index using the ALTER INDEX..DEALLOCATE UNUSED command. Answer: B 4. Your test database is running in NOARCHIVELOG mode. Which statement is true regarding the type of backups that can be performed on the database? A.You can perform online whole database backups. B.You can perform offline whole database backups. C.You cannot perform schema-level export/import operations. D.You can perform the backup of only the SYSTEM tablespace when the database is open. Answer: B 5. The database instance is currently using SPFILE. View the Exhibit and examine the error that you received while running the DB Structure Integrity check. Given below are the steps to recover from the error in random order: 1: Shut down the instance, if not already done. 2: Copy one of the remaining control files to a new location. 3: Change the value of the CONTROL_FILES initialization parameter to correspond to the new location of the control files. 4: Start up the database instance to the NOMOUNT stage. 5: Recover the database to the point of failure of the control file. 6: Open the database. Identify the correct sequence of steps? A.1, 2, 4, 3, 5, 6 B.2, 4, 3, 5, 6; 1 not required C.4, 5, 6, 2, 3; 1 not required D.5, 2, 3, 4; 1 and 6 not required Answer: A 6. Note the following points describing various utilities in Oracle Database 11g: 1: It enables the high-speed transfer of data from one database to another. 2: It provides a complete solution for the backup, restoration, and recovery needs of the entire database. 3: It enables the loading of data from an external file into an Oracle database. 4: It provides a tape backup management for the Oracle ecosystem. Which point describes Oracle Secure Backup? A.1 B.2 C.3 D.4 E.1, 2, and 4 F.1, 2, 3, and 4 Answer: D 7. You have issued a SHUTDOWN ABORT command to bring down your database instance. Consider the steps that will be performed later when you open the database: 1: SGA is allocated. 2: Control file is read. 3: Redo log files are read. 4: Instance recovery is started. 5: Background processes are started. 6: Data files are checked for consistency. 7: Server parameter file or the initialization parameter file is read. Which option has the correct order in which these steps occur? A.7, 1, 5, 2, 3, 6, 4 B.1, 2, 3,7, 5, 6, 4 C.7, 1, 4, 5, 2, 3, 6 D.1, 7, 5, 4, 2, 3, 6 Answer: A 8. Observe the information in the columns: 1: The SGAa. Text and parsed forms of all SQL statements 2: The cursor stateb. Run-time memory values for the SQL statement, such as rows retrieved 3: User-session datac. Security and resource usage information 4: The stack spaced. Local variables for the process Which option has the correct match between the memory areas and their contents? A.1-c, 2-b, 3-d, 4-a B.1-c, 2-b, 3-d, 4-a C.1-a, 2-b, 3-c, 4-d D.1-a, 2-b, 3-d, 4-c Answer: C 9. View the Exhibit and examine the privileges granted to the SL_REP user. The EMP table is owned by the SCOTT user. The SL_REP user executes the following command: SQL> GRANT SELECT ON scott.emp TO hr; Which statement describes the outcome of the command? A.The command executes successfully. B.The command produces an error because the EMP table is owned by SCOTT. C.The command produces an error because SL_REP has the GRANT ANY OBJECT PRIVILEGE without ADMIN_OPTION. D.The command produces an error because SL_REP does not have the SELECT privilege with GRANT_OPTION on the EMP table. Answer: A 10. Examine the following statement that is used to modify the constraint on the SALES table: SQL> ALTER TABLE SALES MODIFY CONSTRAINT pk DISABLE VALIDATE; Which three statements are true regarding the above command? (Choose three.) A.The constraint remains valid. B.The index on the constraint is dropped. C.It allows the loading of data into the table using SQL *Loader. D.New data conforms to the constraint, but existing data is not checked. E.It allows the data manipulation on the table using INSERT/UPDATE/DELETE SQL statements. Answer: ABC 11. Identify the memory component from which memory may be allocated for: 1: Session memory for the shared server 2: Buffers for I/O slaves 3: Oracle Database Recovery Manager (RMAN) backup and restore operations A.Large Pool B.Redo Log Buffer C.Database Buffer Cache D.Program Global Area (PGA) Answer: A 12. Which is the correct description of a pinned buffer in the database buffer cache? A.The buffer is currently being accessed. B.The buffer is empty and has not been used. C.The contents of the buffer have changed and must be flushed to the disk by the DBWn process. D.The buffer is a candidate for immediate aging out and its contents are synchronized with the block contents on the disk. Answer: A 13. You have executed this command to change the size of the database buffer cache: SQL> ALTER SYSTEM SET DB_CACHE_SIZE=2516582; System altered. To verify the change in size, you executed this command: SQL> SHOW PARAMETER DB_CACHE_SIZE NAME TYPE VALUE ------------------- ----------- ------------------ db_cache_size big integer 4194304 Why is the value set to 4194304 and not to 2516582? A.because 4194304 is the granule size B.because 4194304 is the standard block size C.because 4194304 is the largest nonstandard block size defined in the database D.because 4194304 is the total size of data already available in the database buffer cache Answer: A 14. These are points that describe the contents of different memory components: 1: Descriptive information or metadata about schema objects that are queried by using SQL statements 2: The run-time area for data manipulation language (DML) or data definition language (DDL) statements 3: Results of SQL queries and PL/SQL functions 4: Executable forms of SQL cursors, PL/SQL programs, and Java classes 5: The information necessary to reconstruct changes made to the database by a transaction Which of these will be stored in the Shared Pool if the necessary configurations are done? A.1 and 2 B.2 and 5 C.1, 3, and 4 D.3, 4, and 5 E.1, 2, 3, and 4 Answer: C 15. Which two statements are true about Shared SQL Area and Private SQL Area? (Choose two.) A.Shared SQL Area will be allocated in the shared pool. B.Shared SQL Area will be allocated when a session starts. C.Shared SQL Area will be allocated in the large pool always. D.Private SQL Area will be allocated in the Program Global Area (PGA) always. E.Shared SQL Area and Private SQL Area will be allocated in the PGA or large pool. F.The number of Private SQL Area allocations is dependent on the OPEN_CURSORS parameter. Answer: AF 16. Note the following functionalities of various background processes: 1: Record the checkpoint information in data file headers. 2: Perform recovery at instance startup. 3: Cleanup unused temporary segments. 4: Free the resources used by a user process when it fails. 5: Dynamically register database services with listeners. 6: Monitor sessions for idle session timeout. Which option has the correct functionalities listed for a background process? A.Archiver Process (ARCn): 1, 2, 5 B.System Monitor Process (SMON): 1, 4, 5 C.Process Monitor Process (PMON): 4, 5, 6 D.Database Writer Process (DBWn): 1, 3, 4 Answer: C 17. Note the functionalities of various background processes: 1: Perform recovery at instance startup. 2: Free the resources used by a user process when it fails. 3: Cleanup the database buffer cache when a process fails. 4: Dynamically register database services with listeners. 5: Monitor sessions for idle session timeout. 6: Cleanup unused temporary segments. 7: Record the checkpoint information in control file. Which option has the correct functionalities listed for a background process? A.Checkpoint (CKPT): 1, 2, 5 B.System Monitor (SMON): 1, 6 C.Process Monitor (PMON): 4, 6, 7 D.Database Writer (DBWR): 1, 3, 4 Answer: B 18. View the Exhibit and identify the component marked with a question mark. A.Checkpoint (CKPT) B.Process Monitor (PMON) C.Archiver Processes (ARCn) D.Recoverer Process (RECO) E.Memory Manager process (MMAN) Answer: A 19. Which two statements about the background process of the database writer are true? (Choose two.) A.It is possible to have multiple database writers in an Oracle instance. B.It writes dirty buffers, if any, to data files whenever a checkpoint occurs. C.It writes dirty buffers, if any, to data files whenever a transaction commits. D.It writes dirty buffers, if any, to data files before the log writer (LGWR) writes. Answer: AB 20. You have set Tablespace Full Metrics Threshold values for the USERS tablespace as follows: Warning (%): 90 Critical (%): 95 Which background process is responsible for issuing alerts when the threshold is crossed? A.System monitor (SMON) B.Process monitor (PMON) C.Memory manager process (MMAN) D.Manageability Monitor process (MMON) Answer: D
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1Z0-007 self-study training
Free 1Z0-007 exam Questions and Answers
It is well known that 1Z0-007 exam test is the hot exam of Oracle certification. Exam Code: 1Z0-007, Exam Name: Introduction to Oracle9i: SQL.
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1. What does the FORCE option for creating a view do?
A.creates a view with constraints
B.creates a view even if the underlying parent table has constraints
C.creates a view in another schema even if you don't have privileges
D.creates a view regardless of whether or not the base tables exist
Answer: D
2. What are two reasons to create synonyms? (Choose two.)
A.You have too many tables.
B.Your tables are too long.
C.Your tables have difficult names.
D.You want to work on your own tables.
E.You want to use another schema's tables.
F.You have too many columns in your tables.
Answer: CE
3. The STUDENT_GRADES table has these columns:
STUDENT_ID NUMBER(12)
SEMESTER_END DATE
GPA NUMBER(4,3)
The registrar requested a report listing the students' grade point averages (GPA) sorted from highest
grade point average to lowest.
Which statement produces a report that displays the student ID and GPA in the sorted order requested by
the registrar?
A.SELECT student_id, gpa
FROM student_grades
ORDER BY gpa ASC;
B.SELECT student_id, gpa
FROM student_grades
SORT ORDER BY gpa ASC;
C.SELECT student_id, gpa
FROM student_grades
SORT ORDER BY gpa;
D.SELECT student_id, gpa
FROM student_grades
ORDER BY gpa;
E.SELECT student_id, gpa
FROM student_grades
SORT ORDER BY gpa DESC;
F.SELECT student_id, gpa
FROM student_grades
ORDER BY gpa DESC;
Answer: F
4. In which three cases would you use the USING clause? (Choose three.)
A.You want to create a nonequijoin.
B.The tables to be joined have multiple NULL columns.
C.The tables to be joined have columns of the same name and different data types.
D.The tables to be joined have columns with the same name and compatible data types.
E.You want to use a NATURAL join, but you want to restrict the number of columns in the join condition.
Answer: CDE
5. The CUSTOMERS table has these columns:
CUSTOMER_ID NUMBER(4) NOT NULL
CUSTOMER_NAME VARCHAR2(100) NOT NULL
STREET_ADDRESS VARCHAR2(150)
CITY_ADDRESS VARCHAR2(50)
STATE_ADDRESS VARCHAR2(50)
PROVINCE_ADDRESS VARCHAR2(50)
COUNTRY_ADDRESS VARCHAR2(50)
POSTAL_CODE VARCHAR2(12)
CUSTOMER_PHONE VARCHAR2(20)
The CUSTOMER_ID column is the primary key for the table.
You need to determine how dispersed your customer base is. Which expression finds the number of
different countries represented in the CUSTOMERS table?
A.COUNT(UPPER(country_address))
B.COUNT(DIFF(UPPER(country_address)))
C.COUNT(UNIQUE(UPPER(country_address)))
D.COUNT DISTINCT UPPER(country_address)
E.COUNT(DISTINCT (UPPER(country_address)))
Answer: E
6. Click the Exhibit button and examine the data in the EMPLOYEES table.
Which three subqueries work? (Choose three.)
A.SELECT *
FROM employees
where salary > (SELECT MIN(salary)
FROM employees
GROUP BY department_id);
B.SELECT *
FROM employees
WHERE salary = (SELECT AVG(salary)
FROM employees
GROUP BY department_id);
C.SELECT distinct department_id
FROM employees
WHERE salary > ANY (SELECT AVG(salary)
FROM employees
GROUP BY department_id);
D.SELECT department_id
FROM employees
WHERE salary > ALL (SELECT AVG(salary)
FROM employees
GROUP BY department_id);
E.SELECT last_name
FROM employees
WHERE salary > ANY (SELECT MAX(salary)
FROM employees
GROUP BY department_id);
F.SELECT department_id
FROM employees
WHERE salary > ALL (SELECT AVG(salary)
FROM employees
GROUP BY AVG(SALARY));
Answer: CDE
7. A SELECT statement can be used to perform these three functions:
1. Choose rows from a table.
2. Choose columns from a table.
3. Bring together data that is stored in different tables by creating a link between them.
Which set of keywords describes these capabilities?
A.difference, projection, join
B.selection, projection, join
C.selection, intersection, join
D.intersection, projection, join
E.difference, projection, product
Answer: B
8. Evaluate this SQL statement:
SELECT e.EMPLOYEE_ID,e.LAST_NAME,e.DEPARTMENT_ID, d.DEPARTMENT_NAME
FROM EMPLOYEES e, DEPARTMENTS d
WHERE e.DEPARTMENT_ID = d.DEPARTMENT_ID;
In the statement, which capabilities of a SELECT statement are performed?
A.selection, projection, join
B.difference, projection, join
C.selection, intersection, join
D.intersection, projection, join
E.difference, projection, product
Answer: A
9. Evaluate this SQL statement:
SELECT e.employee_id, (.15* e.salary) + (.5 * e.commission_pct)
+ (s.sales_amount * (.35 * e.bonus)) AS CALC_VALUE
FROM employees e, sales s
WHERE e.employee_id = s.emp_id;
What will happen if you remove all the parentheses from the calculation?
A.The value displayed in the CALC_VALUE column will be lower.
B.The value displayed in the CALC_VALUE column will be higher.
C.There will be no difference in the value displayed in the CALC_VALUE column.
D.An error will be reported.
Answer: C
10. Which SQL statement generates the alias Annual Salary for the calculated column SALARY*12?
A.SELECT ename, salary*12 'Annual Salary'
FROM employees;
B.SELECT ename, salary*12 "Annual Salary"
FROM employees;
C.SELECT ename, salary*12 AS Annual Salary
FROM employees;
D.SELECT ename, salary*12 AS INITCAP("ANNUAL SALARY")
FROM employees
Answer: B
11. Evaluate this SQL statement:
SELECT ename, sal, 12*sal+100
FROM emp;
The SAL column stores the monthly salary of the employee. Which change must be made to the above
syntax to calculate the annual compensation as "monthly salary plus a monthly bonus of $100, multiplied
by 12"?
A.No change is required to achieve the desired results.
B.SELECT ename, sal, 12*(sal+100)
FROM emp;
C.SELECT ename, sal, (12*sal)+100
FROM emp;
D.SELECT ename, sal+100,*12
FROM emp;
Answer: B
12. The CUSTOMERS table has these columns:
CUSTOMER_ID NUMBER(4) NOT NULL
CUSTOMER_NAME VARCHAR2(100) NOT NULL
CUSTOMER_ADDRESS VARCHAR2(150)
CUSTOMER_PHONE VARCHAR2(20)
You need to produce output that states "Dear Customer customer_name, ".
The customer_name data values come from the CUSTOMER_NAME column in the CUSTOMERS table.
Which statement produces this output?
A.SELECT dear customer, customer_name,
B.SELECT "Dear Customer", customer_name || ','
FROM customers;
C.SELECT 'Dear Customer ' || customer_name ','
FROM customers;
D.SELECT 'Dear Customer ' || customer_name || ','
FROM customers;
E.SELECT "Dear Customer " || customer_name || ","
FROM customers;
F.SELECT 'Dear Customer ' || customer_name || ',' ||
FROM customers;
Answer: D
13. Which two are attributes of iSQL*Plus? (Choose two.)
A.iSQL*Plus commands cannot be abbreviated.
B.iSQL*Plus commands are accessed from a browser.
C.iSQL*Plus commands are used to manipulate data in tables.
D.iSQL*Plus commands manipulate table definitions in the database.
E.iSQL*Plus is the Oracle proprietary interface for executing SQL statements.
Answer: BE
14. Which is an iSQL*Plus command?
A.INSERT
B.UPDATE
C.SELECT
D.DESCRIBE
E.DELETE
F.RENAME
Answer: D
15. Which are iSQL*Plus commands? (Choose all that apply.)
A.INSERT
B.UPDATE
C.SELECT
D.DESCRIBE
E.DELETE
F.RENAME
Answer: D
16. Which two statements are true about constraints? (Choose two.)
A.The UNIQUE constraint does not permit a null value for the column.
B.A UNIQUE index gets created for columns with PRIMARY KEY and UNIQUE constraints.
C.The PRIMARY KEY and FOREIGN KEY constraints create a UNIQUE index.
D.The NOT NULL constraint ensures that null values are not permitted for the column.
Answer: BD
17. Which three statements correctly describe the functions and use of constraints? (Choose three.)
A.Constraints provide data independence.
B.Constraints make complex queries easy.
C.Constraints enforce rules at the view level.
D.Constraints enforce rules at the table level.
E.Constraints prevent the deletion of a table if there are dependencies.
F.Constraints prevent the deletion of an index if there are dependencies.
Answer: CDE
18. Which SQL statement defines a FOREIGN KEY constraint on the DEPTNO column of the EMP table?
A.CREATE TABLE EMP
(empno NUMBER(4),
ename VARCHAR2(35),
deptno NUMBER(7,2) NOT NULL,
CONSTRAINT emp_deptno_fk FOREIGN KEY deptno
REFERENCES dept deptno);
B.CREATE TABLE EMP
(empno NUMBER(4),
ename VARCHAR2(35),
deptno NUMBER(7,2)
CONSTRAINT emp_deptno_fk REFERENCES dept (deptno));
C.CREATE TABLE EMP
(empno NUMBER(4),
ename VARCHAR2(35),
deptno NUMBER(7,2) NOT NULL,
CONSTRAINT emp_deptno_fk REFERENCES dept (deptno)
FOREIGN KEY (deptno));
D.CREATE TABLE EMP
(empno NUMBER(4),
ename VARCHAR2(35),
deptno NUMBER(7,2) FOREIGN KEY
CONSTRAINT emp_deptno_fk REFERENCES dept (deptno));
Answer: B
19. Which view should a user query to display the columns associated with the constraints on a table
owned by the user?
A.USER_CONSTRAINTS
B.USER_OBJECTS
C.ALL_CONSTRAINTS
D.USER_CONS_COLUMNS
E.USER_COLUMNS
Answer: D
20. You need to design a student registration database that contains several tables storing academic
information.
The STUDENTS table stores information about a student. The STUDENT_GRADES table stores
information about the student's grades. Both of the tables have a column named STUDENT_ID. The
STUDENT_ID column in the STUDENTS table is a primary key.
You need to create a foreign key on the STUDENT_ID column of the STUDENT_GRADES table that
points to the STUDENT_ID column of the STUDENTS table. Which statement creates the foreign key?
A.CREATE TABLE student_grades
(student_id NUMBER(12),
semester_end DATE,
gpa NUMBER(4,3),
CONSTRAINT student_id_fk REFERENCES (student_id)
FOREIGN KEY students(student_id));
B.CREATE TABLE student_grades
(student_id NUMBER(12),
semester_end DATE,
gpa NUMBER(4,3),
student_id_fk FOREIGN KEY (student_id)
REFERENCES students(student_id));
C.CREATE TABLE student_grades
(student_id NUMBER(12),
semester_end DATE,
gpa NUMBER(4,3),
CONSTRAINT FOREIGN KEY (student_id)
REFERENCES students(student_id));
D.CREATE TABLE student_grades
(student_id NUMBER(12),
semester_end DATE,
gpa NUMBER(4,3),
CONSTRAINT student_id_fk FOREIGN KEY (student_id)
REFERENCES students(student_id));
Answer: D
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1z0-041 self-study training
Free 1z0-041 exam Questions and Answers
It is well known that 1z0-041 exam test is the hot exam of Oracle certification. Exam Code: 1z0-041, Exam Name: Oracle Database 10g: DBA Assessment.
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1.Which three statements are correct regarding the Database Configuration Assistant (DBCA) templates? (Choose three.) A. Templates are XML files. B. Seed templates are stored with the .dbt extension. C. Templates cannot be copied from one machine to another. D. Creation of the database is faster when you use a nonseed template instead of a seed template. E. Templates are stored in the $ORACLE_HOME/assistants/dbca/templates directory on a Linux platform. F. If you use a nonseed template to create the database, then all the datafiles and redo logs are created as per your specification. Answer: A, E, F 2.Exhibit: View the Exhibit and examine the Net Services Administration page of Enterprise Manager. Which menu option would you choose to manage the contents of the tnsnames.ora file? A: Listeners B: Directory Naming C: Local Naming D: File Location Answer: C 3.To protect the sample schema accounts from an unauthorized user access, these accounts are _____. A. not granted any role initially B. operating system (OS) authenticated C. initially locked with their passwords expired D. created with their passwords stored in a password file Answer: C 4.Which three usernames, by default, provide access to Oracle Enterprise Manager Database Control? (Choose three.) A. SYS B. MDSYS C. WKSYS D. DMSNMP E. SYSTEM F. SYSMAN Answer: A, E, F 5.Which method can you use to receive a notification when the free disk space in the recovery area falls below 10%? A. Submit a job that queries the Automatic Workload Repository (AWR). B. Create an alert that sends a notification when the threshold value is reached. C. Invoke the Database Configuration Assistant (DBCA) to configure notifications and set threshold values. D. Specify the users who should receive notifications in the Preferred Credentials of the Enterprise Manager. E. Run the Automatic Database Diagnostic Monitor (ADDM) to analyze disk space and display a warning message. Answer: B 6.Which default administrative user account does the Management Agent component of Oracle Enterprise Manager use to monitor and manage the database? A. OE B. SYS C. OUTLN D. DBSNMP E. SYSTEM F. SYSMAN Answer: D 7.Which two statements are correct regarding naming methods? (Choose two.) A. Easy connect naming method requires no configuration. B. Directory naming method stores net service names in a local configuration file. C. Local naming method stores net service names in a supported non-Oracle service. D. Directory naming method stores connect identifiers in a centralized, LDAP-compliant directory server. E. External naming method stores connect descriptors, identified by their net service names in the sqlnet.ora file. Answer: A, D 8.Exhibit: View the Exhibit. You are creating an additional database by using Database Configuration Assistant (DBCA). You realize that the Block Size field is not enabled. What could be the reason? A. You have chosen the File System option as the storage mechanism. B. You are not using the Custom Database template to create the database. C. You have not chosen the Use Grid Control for Database Management option. D. The data block size is set to the maximum block size supported by the operating system. E. The data block size can be increased only when DBCA is invoked from Oracle Universal Installer (OUI). Answer: B 9.Which three statements are true about database storage structures? (Choose three.) A. Tablespaces comprise one or more datafiles. B. Segments can span datafiles within a tablespace. C. Datafiles can belong to more than one tablespace. D. Segments can span datafiles across tablespaces. E. Data objects are stored as segments in tablespaces. Answer: A, B, E 10.Which three default actions are performed by Enterprise Manager when a tablespace is deleted? (Choose three.) A. All the objects in the tablespace are truncated. B. All the objects stored in the tablespace are dropped. C. The definitions of the objects are removed from the data dictionary. D. The definitions of the objects are retained in the data dictionary but made invalid. E. All the datafiles associated with the tablespace are deleted from the operating system. F. All the datafiles associated with the tablespace are not physically removed from the operating system. Answer: B, C, E
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1Z0-101 self-study training
Free 1Z0-101 exam Questions and Answers
It is well known that 1Z0-101 exam test is the hot exam of Oracle certification. Exam Code: 1Z0-101, Exam Name: Develop pl/sql program units.
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1.Which two statements about packages are true? (Choose two.)
A.Packages can be nested.
B.You can pass parameters to packages.
C.A package is loaded into memory each time it is invoked.
D.The contents of packages can be shared by many applications.
E.You can achieve information hiding by making package constructs private.
Correct:D E
2.Which code can you use to ensure that the salary is neither increased by more than 10% at a
time nor is it ever decreased?
A.ALTER TABLE emp ADD CONSTRAINT ck_sal CHECK (sal BETWEEN sal AND sal*1.1);
B.CREATE OR REPLACE TRIGGER check_sal BEFORE UPDATE OF sal ON emp FOR EACH ROW
WHEN (new.sal < old.sal OR new.sal > old.sal * 1.1) BEGIN RAISE_APPLICATION_ERROR ( - 20508,
'Do not decrease salary nor increase by more than 10%'); END;
C.CREATE OR REPLACE TRIGGER check_sal BEFORE UPDATE OF sal ON emp WHEN (new.sal <
old.sal OR new.sal > old.sal * 1.1) BEGIN RAISE_APPLICATION_ERROR ( - 20508, 'Do not decrease
salary nor increase by more than 10%'); END;
D.CREATE OR REPLACE TRIGGER check_sal AFTER UPDATE OF sal ON emp WHEN (new.sal <
old.sal OR -new.sal > old.sal * 1.1) BEGIN RAISE_APPLICATION_ERROR ( - 20508, 'Do not decrease
salary nor increase by more than 10%'); END;
Correct:B
3.The procedure ADD_PRODUCT is defined within a package specification as follows:
PROCEDURE ADD_PRODUCT (p_prodno NUMBER, p_prodname VARCHAR2); Which procedure
declaration cannot be added to the package specification?
A.PROCEDURE add_product (p_order_date DATE);
B.PROCEDURE add_product (p_name VARCHAR2, p_ordered DATE);
C.PROCEDURE add_product (p_prodname VARCHAR2, p_price NUMBER);
D.PROCEDURE add_product (p_price NUMBER, p_description VARCHAR2);
Correct:D
4.The programmer who developed a procedure ACCOUNT_TRANSACTION left the organization.
You are assigned the task of modifying this procedure. You want to find all the program units
invoking the ACCOUNT_TRANSACTION procedure. How can you find this information?
A.Query the USER_SOURCE data dictionary view.
B.Query the USER_PROCEDURES data dictionary view.
C.Query the USER_DEPENDENCIES data dictionary view.
D.Set the SQL*Plus environment variable TRACECODE=TRUE and run the ACCOUNT_TRANSACTION
procedure.
E.Set the SQL*Plus environment variable DEPENDENCIES=TRUE and run the
ACCOUNT_TRANSACTION procedure.
Correct:C
5.Which part of a database trigger determines the number of times the trigger body executes?
A.trigger type
B.trigger body
C.trigger event
D.trigger timing
Correct:A
6.Which compiler directive is used to check the purity level of functions?
A.PRAGMA PURITY_LEVEL
B.PRAGMA SERIALLY_REUSEABLE
C.PRAGMA RESTRICT_REFERENCES
D.PRAGMA RESTRICT_PURITY_LEVEL
E.PRAGMA RESTRICT_FUNCTION_REFERENCE
Correct:C
7.Which system privilege must you have to manually recompile a stored procedure owned by
another application developer?
A.ALTER PROCEDURE
B.ALTER ANY PROCEDURE
C.ALTER ALL PROCEDURE
D.COMPILE ANY PROCEDURE
Correct:B
8.You are creating a stored procedure in the SQL*Plus environment. The text of the procedure is
stored in a script file. You run the script file to compile the procedure. What happens if the
procedure contains syntax errors?
A.Neither the source code, nor the errors are stored in the database.
B.Both the source code and the compilation errors are stored in the database.
C.Compilation errors are appended to the script file that contains the source code.
D.The source code is stored in the database, and the errors are stored in an output file.
E.Only the compilation errors are written to the database, and source code remains in the script file.
Correct:B
9.Which procedure of the dbms_output supplied package would you use to append text to the
current line of the output buffer?
A.GET
B.GET_LINE
C.PUT_TEXT_LINE
D.PUT
Correct:D
10.The number of cascading triggers is limited by which database initialization parameter?
A.CASCADE_TRIGGER_CNT
B.OPEN_CURSORS
C.OPEN_TRIGGERS
D.OPEN_DB_TRIGGERS
Correct:B
11.Examine this function: CREATE OR REPLACE FUNCTION CALC_PLAYER_AVG (V_ID in
PLAYER_BAT_STAT.PLAYER_ID%TYPE) RETURN NUMBER IS V_AVG NUMBER; BEGIN SELECT
HITS / AT_BATS INTO V_AVG FROM PLAYER_BAT_STAT WHERE PLAYER_ID = V_ID; RETURN
(V_AVG); END; Which statement will successfully invoke this function in SQL*Plus?
A.SELECT CALC_PLAYER_AVG(PLAYER_ID) FROM PLAYER_BAT_STAT;
B.EXECUTE CALC_PLAYER_AVG(31);
C.CALC_PLAYER('Ruth');
D.CALC_PLAYER_AVG(31);
E.START CALC_PLAYER_AVG(31)
Correct:A
12.Examine this package: CREATE OR REPLACE PACKAGE discounts IS g_id NUMBER := 7839;
discount_rate NUMBER := 0.00; PROCEDURE display_price (p_price NUMBER); END discounts; /
CREATE OR REPLACE PACKAGE BODY discounts IS PROCEDURE display_price (p_price
NUMBER) IS BEGIN DBMS_OUTPUT.PUT_LINE('Discounted '||
TO_CHAR(p_price*NVL(discount_rate, 1))); END display_price; BEGIN discount_rate := 0.10; END
discounts; / The SQL*Plus SERVEROUTPUT setting is turned on in your session. You execute the
procedure DISPLAY_PRICE from SQL*Plus with the command: EXECUTE discounts.display_price
(100); What is the result?
A.Discounted 10
B.Discounted 100
C.Discounted 0.00
D.Discounted NULL
E.Discounted 0.10E.Discounted 0.10
Correct:A
13.You have created a stored procedure DELETE_TEMP_TABLE that uses dynamic SQL to remove
a table in your schema. You have granted the EXECUTE privilege to user A on this procedure.
When user A executes the DELETE_TEMP_TABLE procedure, under whose privileges are the
operations performed by default?
A.SYS privileges
B.your privileges
C.public privileges
D.user A's privileges
E.User A cannot execute your procedure that has dynamic SQL.
Correct:B
14.When creating procedures, arguments should be placed before which keyword?
A.IS
B.BEGIN
C.DECLARE
D.PROCEDURE
Correct:A
15.You need to recompile several program units you have recently modified through a PL/SQL
program. Which statement is true?
A.You cannot recompile program units using a PL/SQL program.
B.You can use the DBMS_DDL.RECOMPILE packaged procedure to recompile the program units.
C.You can use the DBMS_ALTER.COMPILE packaged procedure to recompile the program units.
D.You can use the DBMS_DDL.ALTER_COMPILE packaged procedure to recompile the program units.
E.You can use the DBMS_SQL.ALTER_COMPILE packaged procedure to recompile the program units.
Correct:D
16.Which two statements are true? (Choose two.)
A.A function must return a value.
B.A procedure must return a value.
C.A function executes as a PL/SQL statement.
D.A function is invoked as part of an expression.
E.A procedure must have a return data type specified in its declaration.
Correct:A D
17.The add_player, upd_player_stat, and upd_pitcher_stat procedures are grouped together in a
package. A variable must be shared among only these procedures. Where should you declare this
variable?
A.in the package body
B.in a database trigger
C.in the package specification
D.in each procedure's DECLARE section, using the exact same name in each
Correct:A
18.There is a CUSTOMER table in a schema that has a public synonym CUSTOMER and you are
granted all object privileges on it. You have a procedure PROCESS_CUSTOMER that processes
customer information that is in the public synonym CUSTOMER table. You have just created a new
table called CUSTOMER within your schema. Which statement is true?
A.Creating the table has no effect and procedure PROCESS_CUSTOMER still accesses data from public
synonym CUSTOMER table.
B.If the structure of your CUSTOMER table is the same as the public synonym CUSTOMER table then
the procedure PROCESS_CUSTOMER is invalidated and gives compilation errors.
C.If the structure of your CUSTOMER table is entirely different from the public synonym CUSTOMER
table then the procedure PROCESS_CUSTOMER successfully recompiles and accesses your
CUSTOMER table.
D.If the structure of your CUSTOMER table is the same as the public synonym CUSTOMER table then
the procedure PROCESS_CUSTOMER successfully recompiles when invoked and accesses your
CUSTOMER table.
Correct:D
19.Under which situation do you create a server-side procedure?
A.when the procedure contains no SQL statements
B.when the procedure contains no PL/SQL commands
C.when the procedure needs to be used by many client applications accessing several remote databases
D.when the procedure needs to be used by many users accessing the same schema objects on a local
database
Correct:D
20.Which two programming constructs can be grouped within a package? (Choose two.)
A.cursor
B.constant
C.trigger
D.sequence
E.view
Correct:A B
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1.When is the request sent to a listener? A. After every call. B. Before every call. C. After name resolution. D. Before name resolution. Answer: C 2.The initial number of dispatchers is set to 50. Because of the load on the dispatcher processes the DBA needs to decrease the number of dispatchers. Which two recommended procedures could be used? (Choose two) A. Issue the ALTER SYSTEM command to remove dispatchers. B. Issue the ALTER SESSION command to remove dispatchers. C. Edit the MTS_DISPATCHERS parameter and bounce the database. D. Edit the MTS_MAX_DISPATCHERS parameter and bounce the database. E. Edit the MTS_MIN_DISPATCHERS parameter and bounce the database. Answer: A, C 3.Which NAMESCTL command can be used to manually force Names Server discovery? A. Flush B. Reload C. Reorder_NS D. Discover_NS E. Start_client_cache Answer: C 4.Which feature needs to be configured in Connection Manager to enable your system to scale to a large number of users? A. Connection Pooling B. Network access control C. Connection concentration D. Multiple protocol interchange Answer: C 5.Which folder would you use in the Net8 Assistant Tool to change the naming method? A. Profile B. Configuration C. Service Names D. Oracle Names Server Answer: A 6.In which file is the information that host naming is enabled stored? A. Init.ora B. Sqlnet.ora C. Tnsnames.ora D. Listener.ora Answer: B 7.Which statement is true regarding connection breaks? A. In-band breaks are faster than out-band breaks. B. In-band breaks use messages that invoke operating system signals. C. In-band breaks are issued to the server process by the operating system. D. Out-band breaks send urgent data messages and are faster than in-band breaks. E. There are no fundamental differences between in-band breaks and out-band breaks. Answer: D 8.How many response queues are present in a multithreaded server environment? A. One per system. B. One per database. C. One per listener. D. One per dispatcher. Answer: D 9.A DBA has installed and configured Net8 TCP/IP on the client and the server but is still unable to connect from Windows NT Workstation using SQL*Plus to an Oracle instance running on a remote UNIX server. However there are no problems when using FTP between two nodes. What actions next taken by the DBA could make progress towards diagnosing the problem? A. Attempting to PING the server from the client. B. Checking to see if the DNS configuration is correct. C. Connecting by using the Net8 Assistant Test Connection feature. D. Checking to see if the TNS ping process is running on the server. Answer: C 10.You setup MTS for the PROD database, which uses multiple listeners to handle requests. Which listener control command can you issue for each listener that the dispatchers have registered with all listeners used by the database? A. DISPATCHERB. SHOW ALL C. SERVICES D. SHOW SERVICES E. SHOW DISPATCHER Answer: C 11.When configuring for multiple protocol interchange, what does Source_Route indicate? A. Enables connections through Connection Manager. B. Identifies the service name to which the connection needs to be established. C. Identifies the database SID to which the connection needs to be established. D. Identifies the node and the port number on which connection manager is running. Answer: A 12.Which are two features of Connection Manager? (Choose two) A. Connection exchange. B. Connection resolution. C. Connection multiplexing. D. Connection cross-linking. E. Protocol transformation. F. Protocol interchange capability. Answer: C, F 13.Which two are tasks of the dispatcher process? (Choose two) A. Receiving connection requests. B. Placing a request in the request queue. C. Updating the listener with new LOAD values. D. Determining if the client request can be processed. Answer: B, C 14.You are using host naming. Which components need to be installed? A. Net8 on the server and the client machine. B. TCP/IP and Net8 only on the client machine. C. TCP/IP and Net8 only on the server machine. D. TCP/IP and Net8 on the server and the client machine. Answer: D 15.Which naming method simplifies administrative tasks when configuration changes need to be made available to all clients immediately? A. Host Naming B. Local Naming C. Service Naming D. Centralized Naming Answer: D 16.Which process picks up a request from a response queue? A. Client process B. Listener process C. Dispatcher process D. Shared server process Answer: C 17.If a password is configured, which command must be issued first when you need to stop the listener? A. Stop B. Password C. Set Password D. Shutdown immediate Answer: C 18.Which parameter specifies the maximum number of server processes that get pre-spawned in a dedicated server environment? (Do not use any extra words or characters) Answer: MTS_MAX_SERVERS 19.Which statement regarding the logging and tracing of Net8 is True? A. Logging cannot be disabled on client. B. There are four levels of logging that can be set. C. Tracing can take up significant disk space but has little impact on performance. D. There is no way to prevent new trace data from being appended to the same file with each new session. Answer: B 20.The listener audit trail provides information about every client connection request. Which additional request about the client is NOT provided? A. Client user ID B. Database user name C. Network protocol D. Client host (platform) Answer: B
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1.Examine the code below. FUNCTION check_window RETURN VARCHAR2 IS BEGIN RETURN
(GET_VIEW_PROPERTY(GET_ITEM_PROPERTY( NAME_IN('system.cursor_item'), item_canvas),
window_name)); END; What does this function return?
A.the name of the item where the cursor is located
B.the name of the form where the cursor is located
C.the name of the window where the cursor is located
D.the name of the canvas where the cursor is located
Correct:C
2.Which statement about windows and blocks is true?
A.Transaction management is block-oriented rather than window-oriented.
B.Forms automatically navigates to an item located in an activated window.
C.A window may contain multiple blocks, but each block can only span one window.
D.A window can contain multiple canvases, and an item can be located on multiple canvases.
Correct:A
3.You include the calendar class in your Hotel Booking application. Which additional form level
objects will you need to create to implement this reusable component fully?
A.blocks
B.visual attributes
C.stacked canvas
D.Nothing further needs to be created.
Correct:D
4.You need to create a trigger to locate the Product report on the Rpt_Server, run the report, and
test the status of the report. Which three built-ins would you use to use to accomplish this task?
(Choose three.)
A.RUN_PRODUCT
B.SET_REPORT_OBJECT_PROPERTY
C.RUN_REPORT_OBJECT
D.FIND_REPORT_OBJECT
E.REPORT_OBJECT_STATUS
F.COPY_REPORT_OBJECT_OUTPUT
Correct:C D E
5.You create a multiple form application. Which built-in must you use to invoke the form modules
to enable you to programmatically control navigation between the multiple forms in your
application?
A.NEW_FORM
B.OPEN_FORM
C.CALL_FORM
D.CLOSE_FORM
Correct:B
6.Which built-in would you use to test whether the CREATE TABLE command issued in the SALES
form executed successfully?
A.FORMS_DDL
B.DO_SQL
C.FORM_SUCCESS
D.FORM_NOT_SUCCESS
E.DBMS.ERROR_CODE
Correct:C
7.In the COURSE_ENROLLMENT form module, you define a master-detail relation between the
COURSES_OFFERED data block and the STUDENT data block, respectively. To implement block
coordination, which statement must be true?
A.The Enforce Primary Key property on the STUDENT block is set to Yes.
B.The Alias property on the COURSES_OFFERED block is set to Student.
C.The Copy Value from Item property on the foreign key item in the STUDENT block is set to the primary
key item of the COURSES_OFFERED block.
D.The Synchronize with Item property on the foreign key item in the STUDENT block is set to the primary
key item of the COURSES_OFFERED block.
Correct:C
8.You need to create a data block for query operations in the RETIRED_EMPLOYEES form module.
Which three data sources can you use for this block? (Choose three.)
A.vector
B.database view
C.database table
D.transactional trigger
E.PL/SQL table of records
F.multi-dimensional array
Correct:B C D
9.Which built-in allows you to update the screen display to reflect the information that Forms has
in its internal representation of the screen?
A.SYNCHRONIZE
B.UPDATE_FORM
C.SYNCHRONIZE_FORM
D.GET_MEMORY_DISPLAY
E.SET_MEMORY_DISPLAY
Correct:A
10.You are creating a form that will access an Oracle8 database. On which three sources can you
base a data block? (Choose three.)
A.BFILE
B.REF column
C.object table
D.column object
E.INSTEAD-OF trigger
Correct:B C D
11.Your end users will need to change values in a REF lookup field in the form application you
create. To facilitate choosing a new appropriate value, you provide them with _____.
A.an LOV for REFS
B.a list item for REFs
C.a radio group for REFs
D.a hierarchical tree for REFs
Correct:A
12.Which trigger property applies to Key triggers?
A.Hide Keys
B.Show Menu Keys
C.Hide Menu Keys
D.Display in 'Keyboard Help'
E.Hide Keys Description
Correct:D
13.You created a custom menu for the Order Entry application. The shipping administrator has
requested an additional submenu containing four items to invoke various reports . Which
command type must you use to identify the parent menu item as a submenu?
A.Menu
B.Plus
C.Macro
D.PL/SQL
Correct:A
14.How do you change the cursor style in your form?
A.Open the form module property palette and set the Cursor Style property.
B.From the Tools menu, select Preferences-->Runtime Settings.
C.Use the GET_APPLICATION_PROPERTY and SET_APPLICATION_PROPERTY built-ins.
D.You cannot change the cursor style.
Correct:C
15.The record group in the EMP form is populated using a SELECT statement that is constructed
programmatically at runtime. Five employee records are displayed at one time, and a user
chooses item two from the record group. Which built-in would you use to determine which rows
were flagged in the record group?
A.GET_GROUP_ROW_COUNT
B.GET_GROUP_SELECTION_COUNT
C.GET_GROUP_SELECTION
D.FIND_GROUP
E.FIND_COLUMN
F.ADD_GROUP_ROW
Correct:C
16.As an alternative to setting the Visible property to No for the ORDERS_WINDOW, which built-in
could you use to achieve the same result?
A.HIDE_WINDOW
B.CLOSE_WINDOW
C.REPLACE_CONTENT_VIEW
D.GET_WINDOW_PROPERTY
Correct:A
17.Which is an example of a dynamic SELECT statement?
A.a query whose object names change during its execution
B.a query whose object names are not known until run time
C.a query whose bind variable values change during execution
D.a query whose bind variable values are not known until run time
Correct:B
18.Which three objects can be components of a menu module? (Choose three.)
A.windows
B.parameters
C.object groups
D.report objects
E.visual attributes
Correct:B C E
19.You are developing a Hotel Booking application for a travel company. The users request a
wizard-style interface for this application. How could you satisfy this requirement?
A.Reference the Object Iron packages in your form module.
B.Write an HTML interface, and invoke it from your form module.
C.Include the Wizard class reusable component in your application.
D.Build a customized wizard using tab canvases and a horizontal toolbar canvas.
Correct:C
20.You established access to menu modules using roles. You have allowed the sales role to
access the menu module, but prevented access to the Update menu item. Which item property
would you alter to gray out the menu option for the role?
A.Item Roles
B.Menu Item Roles
C.Display without Privilege
D.Use Security
E.Command Type
Correct:C
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1. Which two statements are true regarding savepoints? (Choose two.)
A.Savepoints are effective only for COMMIT.
B.Savepoints may be used to ROLLBACK.
C.Savepoints can be used for only DML statements.
D.Savepoints are effective for both COMMIT and ROLLBACK.
E.Savepoints can be used for both DML and DDL statements.
Answer: BC
2. View the Exhibit to examine the description for the SALES table.
Which views can have all DML operations performed on it? (Choose all that apply.)
A.CREATE VIEW v3
B.CREATE VIEW v1
C.CREATE VIEW v2
D.CREATE VIEW v4
Answer: AB
3. You need to extract details of those products in the SALES table where the PROD_ID column contains
the string '_D123'.
Which WHERE clause could be used in the SELECT statement to get the required output?
A.WHERE prod_id LIKE '%_D123%' ESCAPE '_'
B.WHERE prod_id LIKE '%\_D123%' ESCAPE '\'
C.WHERE prod_id LIKE '%_D123%' ESCAPE '%_'
D.WHERE prod_id LIKE '%\_D123%' ESCAPE '\_'
Answer: B
4. Which two statements are true regarding single row functions? (Choose two.)
A.They accept only a single argument.
B.They can be nested only to two levels.
C.Arguments can only be column values or constants.
D.They always return a single result row for every row of a queried table.
E.They can return a data type value different from the one that is referenced.
Answer: DE
5. Which SQL statements would display the value 1890.55 as $1,890.55? (Choose three.)
A.SELECT TO_CHAR(1890.55,'$0G000D00')
B.SELECT TO_CHAR(1890.55,'$9,999V99')
C.SELECT TO_CHAR(1890.55,'$99,999D99')
D.SELECT TO_CHAR(1890.55,'$99G999D00')
E.SELECT TO_CHAR(1890.55,'$99G999D99')
Answer: ADE
6. Which statement is true regarding transactions? (Choose all that apply.)
A.A transaction can consist only of a set of DML and DDL statements.
B.A part or an entire transaction can be undone by using ROLLBACK command.
C.A transaction consists of a set of DML or DCL statements.
D.A part or an entire transaction can be made permanent with a COMMIT.
E.A transaction can consist of only a set of queries or DML or DDL statements.
Answer: BC
7. Which two statements are true regarding the USING and ON clauses in table joins? (Choose two.)
A.Both USING and ON clauses can be used for equijoins and nonequijoins.
B.A maximum of one pair of columns can be joined between two tables using the ON clause.
C.The ON clause can be used to join tables on columns that have different names but compatible data
types.
D.The WHERE clause can be used to apply additional conditions in SELECT statements containing the
ON or the USING clause.
Answer: CD
8. View the Exhibit and examine the structure of the CUSTOMERS table.
Which two tasks would require subqueries or joins to be executed in a single statement? (Choose two.)
A.listing of customers who do not have a credit limit and were born before 1980
B.finding the number of customers, in each city, whose marital status is 'married'
C.finding the average credit limit of male customers residing in 'Tokyo' or 'Sydney'
D.listing of those customers whose credit limit is the same as the credit limit of customers residing in the
city 'Tokyo'
E.finding the number of customers, in each city, whose credit limit is more than the average credit limit of
all the customers
Answer: DE
9. Which statement is true regarding the INTERSECT operator?
A.It ignores NULL values.
B.Reversing the order of the intersected tables alters the result.
C.The names of columns in all SELECT statements must be identical.
D.The number of columns and data types must be identical for all SELECT statements in the query.
Answer: D
10. View the Exhibit; examine the structure of the PROMOTIONS table.
Each promotion has a duration of at least seven days.
Your manager has asked you to generate a report, which provides the weekly cost for each promotion
done tol date.
Which query would achieve the required result?
A.SELECT promo_name, promo_cost/promo_end_date-promo_begin_date/7
B.SELECT promo_name,(promo_cost/promo_end_date-promo_begin_date)/7
C.SELECT promo_name, promo_cost/(promo_end_date-promo_begin_date/7)
D.SELECT promo_name, promo_cost/((promo_end_date-promo_begin_date)/7)
Answer: D
11. View the Exhibit and examine the structure of the PRODUCTS table.
All products have a list price.
You issue the following command to display the total price of each product after a discount of 25% and a
tax of 15% are applied on it. Freight charges of $100 have to be applied to all the products.
What would be the outcome if all the parentheses are removed from the above statement?
A.It produces a syntax error.
B.The result remains unchanged.
C.The total price value would be lower than the correct value.
D.The total price value would be higher than the correct value.
Answer: B
12. You need to produce a report where each customer's credit limit has been incremented by $1000. In
the output, the customer's last name should have the heading Name and the incremented credit limit
should be labeled New Credit Limit. The column headings should have only the first letter of each word in
uppercase.
Which statement would accomplish this requirement?
A.SELECT cust_last_name Name, cust_credit_limit + 1000
B.SELECT cust_last_name AS Name, cust_credit_limit + 1000
C.SELECT cust_last_name AS "Name", cust_credit_limit + 1000
D.SELECT INITCAP(cust_last_name) "Name", cust_credit_limit + 1000
Answer: C
14. Using the CUSTOMERS table, you need to generate a report that shows 50% of each credit amount
in each income level. The report should NOT show any repeated credit amounts in each income level.
Which query would give the required result?
A.SELECT cust_income_level, DISTINCT cust_credit_limit * 0.50
B.SELECT DISTINCT cust_income_level, DISTINCT cust_credit_limit * 0.50
C.SELECT DISTINCT cust_income_level || ' ' || cust_credit_limit * 0.50
D.SELECT cust_income_level ||' '|| cust_credit_limit * 0.50 AS "50% Credit Limit"
Answer: C
15. View the Exhibit and examine the data in the CUSTOMERS table.
Evaluate the following query:
The above query produces an error on execution.
What is the reason for the error?
A.An alias cannot be used in an expression.
B.The alias NAME should not be enclosed within double quotation marks.
C.The MIDPOINT+100 expression gives an error because CUST_CREDIT_LIMIT contains NULL values.
D.The alias MIDPOINT should be enclosed within double quotation marks for the
CUST_CREDIT_LIMIT/2 expression.
Answer: A
16. Evaluate the following query:
What would be the outcome of the above query?
A.It produces an error because flower braces have been used.
B.It produces an error because the data types are not matching.
C.It executes successfully and introduces an 's at the end of each promo_name in the output.
D.It executes successfully and displays the literal " {'s start date was } " for each row in the output.
Answer: C
17. View the Exhibit and examine the data in the EMPLOYEES table.
You want to generate a report showing the total compensation paid to each employee to date.
You issue the following query:
What is the outcome?
A.It generates an error because the alias is not valid.
B.It executes successfully and gives the correct output.
C.It executes successfully but does not give the correct output.
D.It generates an error because the usage of the ROUND function in the expression is not valid.
E.It generates an error because the concatenation operator can be used to combine only two items.
Answer: C
18. Examine the structure of the PROMOTIONS table:
The management wants to see a report of unique promotion costs in each promotion category.
Which query would achieve the required result?
A.SELECT DISTINCT promo_cost, promo_category FROM promotions;
B.SELECT promo_category, DISTINCT promo_cost FROM promotions;
C.SELECT DISTINCT promo_cost, DISTINCT promo_category FROM promotions;
D.SELECT DISTINCT promo_category, promo_cost FROM promotions ORDER BY 1;
Answer: D
19. Evaluate the following query:
What is the correct output of the above query?
A.+25-00 , +54-02, +00 11:12:10.123457
B.+00-300, +54-02, +00 11:12:10.123457
C.+25-00 , +00-650, +00 11:12:10.123457
D.+00-300 , +00-650, +00 11:12:10.123457
Answer: A
20. Which three statements are true regarding the data types in Oracle Database 10g/11g? (Choose
three.)
A.Only one LONG column can be used per table.
B.A TIMESTAMP data type column stores only time values with fractional seconds.
C.The BLOB data type column is used to store binary data in an operating system file.
D.The minimum column width that can be specified for a VARCHAR2 data type column is one.
E.The value for a CHAR data type column is blank-padded to the maximum defined column width.
Answer: ADE
1Z0-051 Study Guide More Details
1Z0-025 self-study training
Free 1Z0-025 exam Questions and Answers
It is well known that 1Z0-025 exam test is the hot exam of Oracle certification. Exam Code: 1Z0-025, Exam Name: Backup and Recovery.
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1.What are two benefits of using RMAN with a catalog? (Choose two) A. You can copy the redo-log history into the control file. B. You can store scripts for backup and recovery operations. C. You can register the target database with recovery catalog. D. You can maintain records of backup and recovery operations. E. You can synchronize the recovery catalog and the target database. Answer: B, D 2.What is recommended initial size for a tablespace containing an RMAN recovery catalog? A. 10M B. 20M C. 100M D. 10% of size of the target database. Answer: A 3.Your daily report indicating which data files need to be backed up has been misplaced. Which recovery manager command returns a report containing the files in the USER_DATA tablespace that have not been backed up within the last three days? A. Rman> list backup day 3 tablespace user_data; B. Rman>report backup day 3 tablespace user_data; C.Rman>catalog backup day 3 tablespace user_data; D. Rman>report need backup day 3 tablespace user_data; Answer: D 4.Which command is used to allow RMAN to store a group of commands in the recovery catalog? A. ADD SCRIPT B. CREATE SCRIPT C. CREATE COMMAND D. ADD BACKUP SCRIPT Answer: B 5.After rebuilding the recovery catalog by resynchronizing it with a copy of the backup control file, you notice references to files that no longer exist. Which CREATE command clause should you use to remove these references? A. REMOVE B. DELETE C. UNCATALOG D. CATALOG REMOVE Answer: C 6.What are two purposes for using the recovery manager command CATALOG? (Choose two) A. Updating recovery catalog about rollback segment creation. B. Updating recovery catalog about files created before RMAN. C. Updating recovery catalog about operating systems backup. D. Updating recovery catalog about files created before Oracle 8. E. Updating recovery catalog about files that belong to a clone database. Answer: B, C 7.What is the advantage of managed recovery mode? A. During recovery, most common DBA errors can be avoided. B. Prompts for applying the next available redo logs suppressed. C. The primary database automatically ships archived redo log files to the standby server. D. The standby database automatically applies the archived redo log when the files become available. Answer: D 8.What is the effect of issuing an ALTER DATABASE OPEN RESETLOGS command on the primary database? A. It invalidates the standby database. B. The standby database can only be used in read-only mode. C. A new standby database incarnation will automatically be started. D. Once the archived log files are applied to the standby database, the redo log of the standby database is reset. Answer: A 9.What is the effect of activating a standby database? A. The primary database becomes a standby database. B. The standby database becomes the primary database. C. The primary database is deactivated to avoid conflicts. D. The remaining redo-log files are copied from the primary database and applied. Answer: B 10.What is the difference between using NOLOGGING operations in a single database environment and a standby database environment? A. There is no difference. B. NOLOGGING operations are not available in release 0.1 C. The affected data file needs to be copied from the primary to the standby server. D. NOLOGGING operations can be used on the standby database, but not on the primary database. Answer: C 11.The command ALTER DATABASE CREATE STANDBY CONTROLFILE AS standby.ct creates a standby control file. What needs to be done next to create a standby database? A. The standby control file needs to be copied to the standby server. B. The current redo-log files of the primary database need to be archived. C. The standby database needs to be created using the standby control file. D. The standby control file needs to be copied to the standby location on the primary server. Answer: B 12.What is the correct procedure for multiplexing existing online redo logs? A. Issue the ALTER DATABASE. . . ADD LOGFILE GROUP command. B. Issue the ALTER DATABASE. . . ADD LOGFILE MEMBER command. C. Shut down the database, copy the online redo-log, and start up the database. D. Shut down the database, copy the online redo-log, edit the REDO_LOG_FILES parameter, and start up the database. Answer: B 13.Which statement concerning archiving is true? A. Archiving occurs during a checkpoint. B. Archive logs can be written to multiple destinations. C. Backups are not required when archiving is enabled. D. Archiving copies the data files to their backup destinations. E. Archiving can be enabled through recovery manager commands. Answer: B 14.What is the function of SMON in instance recovery? A. It writes data to the archive log files. B. It writes data to the online redo log files. C. It frees resources held by user processes. D. It synchronizes data file header and control files. E. It roles forward by applying changes in the redo log. F. It writes dirty buffers from the buffer cache to the data files. Answer: E 15.What is the function of ARCn in instance recovery? A. It writes data to the archive log files. B. It writes data to the online redo log files. C. It frees resources held by user processes. D. It synchronizes data file header and control files. E. It writes dirty buffers from the buffer cache to the data files. F. The archive process does not take part in instance recovery. Answer: F 16.What are two causes of user errors? (Choose two) A. Incorrect data is committed. B. The operating system crashes. C. There are insufficient privileges. D. A table is accidentally truncated. E. An application file is accidentally deleted. F. The application program receives an addressing exception. Answer: A, D 17.Which option is used in the parameter file to detect corruptions in an Oracle data block? A. DBVERIFY B. DBMS_REPAIR C. DB_BLOCK_CHECKING D. VALIDITY_STRUCTURE Answer: C 18.Which statement is true when using the LogMiner utility? A. The dictionary file is created in a directory as defined by UTL_FILE_DIR. B. The CREATE DBMS LOGMSR command is used to build the dictionary file. C. The dictionary file must be created after the log file analysis has completed. D. The dictionary file is created as a backup if the data dictionary gets corrupted. Answer: A 19.Which statement is true when using the DBVERIFYutility to detect corruptions in an Oracle data block? A. The utility can only be invoked on a data file that is online. B. The utility can be used to verify the data files of a backup database. C. The utility can assist in archiving log files when the database load is high. D. The utility is internal to the database and so can impact database activates. Answer: B 20.The alert log can contain specific information about which database backup activity? A. Placing datafiles in begin and end backup mode. B. Placing tablespace in begin and end backup mode. C. Changing the database backup mode from open to close. D. Performing an operating system backup of the database files. Answer: B
1Z0-025 Study Guide More Details
R12 Oracle: install Patch and Maintain Oracle Applications
R12 Oracle: install Patch and Maintain Oracle Applications exam description
“R12 Oracle: install Patch and Maintain Oracle Applications”, also known as 1z1-238 exam, is one of the Other Oracle Certification certification exam.
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Oracle Database 11g: Performance Tuning
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“Oracle Database 11g: Performance Tuning”, also known as 1Z1-054 exam, is one of the 9i Internet Application Developer certification exam.
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