It is well known that E20-855 exam test is the hot exam of EMC certification. Exam Code: E20-855, Exam Name: Networked Storage-SAN Expert for Implementation Engineers.

Here we offer a free trial part of the E20-855 exam (Including questions and answers). This will be your best E20-855 self-study training. You can check out the interface, question quality and usability of our practice exams before you decide to buy it.

If you need to buy, please visit here E20-855.

If you need to buy EMC certification in other subjects, please visit here EMC certification.

Free E20-855 Questions and Answers Demo

1. Your customer has three fabric islands. One fabric island has three ED-1032s. Two other fabric islands
have two DS16B2s in each. The customer wants to migrate to two fabrics built of two MDS 9509s in each
fabric. Several SUN Solaris servers must be migrated on-line to the new fabrics. What are two [2] steps
required to perform this migration?
A. Disable one path to the fabric
B. Apply the zoning to the new switch
C. Reactivate the disabled path on the new fabric with PowerPath commands and set the speed to 1GB
D. Reactivate the disabled path on the new fabric with PowerPath commands and set the speed to 2GB
Your customer has three fabric islands. One fabric island has three ED-1032s. Two other fabric islands
have two DS16B2s in each. The customer
wants to migrate to two fabrics built of two MDS 9509s in each fabric. Several SUN Solaris servers must
be migrated on-line to the new fabrics.
Answer: AC

2. Customer has implemented HP-UX Campus Cluster using dual-lock disks. They have experienced
"split brain" syndrome in the past. What is a permanent fix for this problem?
A. Unlock cluster lock disks
B. Implement a single lock disk
C. Add one more node to both sides of the cluster
D. Implement multiple network and heartbeat configurations for each node in the cluster
Answer: D

3. Click the Exhibit button. The customer has multiple MDS 9500 and MDS 9200 directors and switches.
They need to have the firmware of the MDS 9216 upgraded. The Fabric Manager's Software Install
Wizard shown in the exhibit shows a problem that must be addressed before continuing the upgrade.
What is likely to be the problem?
A. The file copy mode is wrong
B. The system file is wrong type
C. The Kickstart file is wrong type
D. Fabric Manager is the wrong version
Answer: C

4. Click the Exhibit button. What is the calculated cost from host to storage, in the diagram, if a link fails in
a port channel group?
A. 250
B. 375
C. 500
D. 1500
Answer: C

5. Click the Exhibit button. The customer added a new iSCSI server to the MP-1620M. They can not
access the storage array on IP address 10.5.19.9. The customer's network is setup for Fast Ethernet.
Please see exhibit. What is the issue?
A. Port Speed setting is wrong
B. Port Parameter setting is wrong
C. Autonegotiations setting is wrong
D. iSCSI/iFCP parameter setting is wrong
Answer: A

6. Your customer is implementing a META SAN in a B-series AP-7420B environment. They want to
connect a host from fabric A with storage in fabric B. The host is connected to port 14 on the switch with
Domain ID 2. The storage port is on port 7 on a switch with Domain ID 4. The customer created in both of
the fabrics the zones with the following command: zonecreate "lsan_hostA_storageB", "2, 14" and
zoneadd "lsan_hostA_storageB", "4, 7". After enabling the config the customer cannot see the storage.
What went wrong?
A. InterVSAN Routing was not enabled
B. Used the wrong ports for the zoning
C. VSAN parameters are not configured correctly
D. Port and Domain IDs are not valid for LSAN zoning
Answer: D

7. Which MP-2640M feature enhances the security of the environment when you are ocking down?the
domain IDs of E-ports or R-ports?
A. Set FCID
B. Lock FCID
C. Insistent Domain ID
D. Persistent Domain ID
Answer: C

8. Your customer has recently purchased a second site and is now in the process of connecting the
second site to the existing environment. Customer is using DS16B2, DS32B2 and ED-24000B switches
and directors. Sever problems, such as unstable and unmanageable fabric, occurred after connecting the
two sites with an MPR 7420. How could this have been prevented?
A. Set all member switches WAN_BB to 256
B. Set all member switches PID format set to 0
C. Set fabric parameters WAN_TOV and ED_TOV
D. Set Management Server on the multi-protocol router to disable
Answer: D

9. Your customer is booting their dual-attached HP-UX servers from the DMX via an M-series SAN. They
are using PowerPath 4.x. Over the weekend they added a new switch and changed some storage cabling.
Now they cannot boot up the servers. What is the reason for this?
A. Customer did not export the zoning information
B. Customer did not update the masking information in the VCMDB
C. Customer did not remove the failed links with powermt check
D. Customer did not delete the hardware path links to the storage prior to the changes
Answer: D

10. Click the Exhibit button. The customer wants to collapse the environment shown in the exhibit into two
switches. They do not require any growth. What is the smallest switch they can use to accomplish this
requirement?
A. 32 port
B. 64 port
C. 140 port
D. 256 port
Answer: B

11. Your customer has two SAN islands built with two ED64Ms in each fabric. Due to the end of the lease
these are being replaced with ED-12000Bs. What are the steps to migrate the fabrics without recreating
the zones?
A. Export the zones, edit them with a text editor and import them
B. Open Connectrix Manager, go to the fabric in question and click on "Import Fabric Topology"
C. Open Connectrix Manager, go to the fabric in question and click on "Export Fabric Topology"
D. Obtain IP address, user login and password for both switches and use Zone_convert.exe to migrate
Answer: D

12. A Customer is unable to monitor a Connectrix MDS switch from ControlCenter. What must be done for
the customer to monitor the switch?
A. Discover the switch in ControlCenter
B. Install On-Alert on ControlCenter server
C. Enable SNMP V1on the Connectrix MDS
D. Install the Cisco MIBs on the Connectrix MDS
Answer: C

13. Click the Exhibit button. What would the fabric display in the diagram look like using Connectrix
Manager?
A. You would only see the local fabric
B. You would not see anything in the display
C. You would see two fabrics displayed independent of each other
D. You would see a single fabric containing all local and remote switches
Answer: D

14. Which iSCSI discovery method requires the target's IP address, TCP port, and iSCSI target name?
A. Static
B. BootP
C. Discovery
D. Zero-configuration
Answer: A

15. The customer has 500 identical servers that need to be allocated the same amount of storage space
and storage protection. This task is estimated to take 100 man hours. Which ControlCenter Storage
Provisioning Services steps will reduce the time it takes to provision storage to 10 man hours?
A. Create storage pool, drag storage to the storage pool, highlight the host and allocate storage to the
hosts
B. Create storage policy, drag storage to the storage pool, highlight the host and allocate storage to the
hosts
C. Create host and storage pools, drag storage to the storage pool, highlight host pool and allocate
storage to the hosts
D. Create host and storage pools, drag host pool to the storage policy, highlight host pool and allocate
storage to the hosts
Answer: A

16. Your customer recently added a Celerra to their environment and implemented iSCSI on Windows
2003 servers. They created the IQN name for the Windows servers via a script and the name looked as
follows: iqn.2003-04.com.emc.HostA.0083 The servers cannot see the iSCSI LUNs. What is the reason
for this?
A. The network portal is not reachable
B. Celerra converts upper case into lower case and Windows does not
C. Customer download and installed the latest iSCSI driver from Microsoft's website
D. Customer download and installed the latest iSCSI driver from the HBA vendor's website
Answer: B

17. Which security IP protocol would you implement if you required host-switch authentication?
A. IVR
B. ISAKMP
C. DHCHAP
D. SANTegrity
Answer: C

18. Customer added three new servers to an existing SAN consisting of two fabrics. Each fabric consists
of two switches with two ISLs. This change negatively impacted performance. Throughput is as follows:
20MB/s on Host HBAs at 4K block size 50MB/s on Symmetrix on the FA ports 60MB/s on each ISL port
The physical disks are 80% utilized but with 100% cache-hit ratio. What should the customer do to
improve performance?
A. Add 16k to the block size
B. Add two ISLs to the fabric
C. Add more disks to the storage
D. Add two FA ports to the storage
Answer: B

19. Customer requires dynamic SAN routing and load balancing across multiple links. Which Connectrix
B-series routing policies should be used?
A. Link-based
B. Port-based
C. Load-based
D. Device-based
Answer: D

20. Click the Exhibit button. A customer sends you the nsshow output (see diagram) from a DS-16B2
switch. What PID format is the switch using?
A. Core PID
B. Native PID
C. Extended PID
D. Not enough information
Answer: A

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It is well known that E20-350 exam test is the hot exam of EMC certification. Exam Code: E20-350, Exam Name: Networked Storage-san implementation.

Here we offer a free trial part of the E20-350 exam (Including questions and answers). This will be your best E20-350 self-study training. You can check out the interface, question quality and usability of our practice exams before you decide to buy it.

If you need to buy, please visit here E20-350.

If you need to buy EMC certification in other subjects, please visit here EMC certification.

Free E20-350 Questions and Answers Demo

1. Which main sets of input are captured using SAN Architect?
A. Zoning Requirements, Storage Arrays, Topologies
B. Servers and Storage Requirements, Performance, Topologies
C. Servers and Storage Requirements, Storage Arrays, Topologies
D. Servers and Storage Requirements, Storage Arrays, Device masking
Answer: C

2. What is the purpose of Auto-Port Assignment in SAN Architect?
A. Virtual Fabric Creation
B. Auto matrix qualification
C. Reassign all fabric connections in a highly available fashion
D. Reassign only the connections that are NOT highly available
Answer: C

3. Which tool provides a visual representation of SAN and DAS designs for SAN Architect?
A. Visio
B. Word
C. HTML
D. PowerPoint
Answer: A

4. Which tasks are performed using SAN Architect?
A. Design, Model and Validate
B. Documentation, masking and Zoning lists
C. Statement of work, Project plan and Sales order
D. Part numbers, serial numbers and cable diagrams
Answer: A

5. What is one of EMC's recommendations for zoning in a B-series?
A. Hard zoning
B. Mixed zoning
C. Single HBA zoning
D. Aliases for zone members
Answer: C

6. Which event causes a fabric rebuild in a B-Series fabric?
A. cfgenable
B. Hard zoning
C. Fabric Manager
D. Switch/Director removed
Answer: D

7. What is a valid range of Domain IDs in interopmode for B-Series Switch/Directors?
A. 0-31
B. 1-239
C. 97-127
D. 128-239
Answer: C

8. What happens when Zoning Security is enabled in Fabric Manager?
A. Zoning only per serial connection
B. No zoning changes are permitted
C. Access zoning only with the primary fibre channel switch
D. Zoning is permitted from all switches with dedicated passwords
Answer: C

9. How many IP addresses are needed for installing an ED-12000B director?
A. 2
B. 4
C. 6
D. 8
Answer: B

10. What is the setting for creating a serial connection to a B-Series Switch/Director?
A. 2400, parity
B. 2400, no parity
C. 9600, parity
D. 9600, no parity
Answer: A

11. What is EMC's recommended maximum number of hops between two B-series Switch/Directors?
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5
Answer: B

12. Which fibre channel feature automatically determines routing in a multi-switch fabric?
A. FSPF
B. Routing
C. Spanning Tree
D. ISL Aggregation
Answer: A

13. Which type of cable is needed when connecting to a B-Series Switch/Director maintenance port using
a hyper-terminal?
A. Cross over cable
B. Null Modem cable
C. 10/100 Ethernet cable
D. Pass through serial cable
Answer: D

14. Which B-Series model allows non-disruptive firmware upgrades running firmware 4.1.x?
A. DS-16B
B. DS-16B2
C. DS-16B3
D. ED-12000B
Answer: D

15. How many "upstream" ISLs does the principal switch have?
A. 0
B. 1
C. 3
D. 6
Answer: A

16. What is the port setting for a long wave port for a Connectrix M-Series Switch/Director?
A. 10-100 enabled
B. Port Type to E port
C. Port Binding enabled
D. Port Speed to 2 Gb/sec
Answer: A

17. Which ISL configuration is recommended when installing Fiber 2km in length in a campus
environment?
A. Single ISL using singlemode fiber and shortwave GBIC's
B. Single ISL using multimode fiber and Longwave GBIC's
C. Two ISL's using singlemode fiber and Longwave GBIC's
D. Two ISL's using multimode fiber and Longwave GBIC's
Answer: C

18. Which Domain ID will be the Principal Switch when the switches all come on-line?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Answer: D

19. What should be checked first if only the first 8 ports of a DS24M2 were functioning properly?
A. CTP card
B. Feature keys
C. Power supply
D. ASIC on the mother board
Answer: B

20. Which Connectrix Manager Service Processor log file provides zoning information?
A. Audit Log
B. Event Log
C. History Log
D. Hardware Log
Answer: A

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It is well known that E20-661 exam test is the hot exam of EMC certification. Exam Code: E20-661, Exam Name: Networked Storage-NAS Installation and Troubleshooting Exam.

Here we offer a free trial part of the E20-661 exam (Including questions and answers). This will be your best E20-661 self-study training. You can check out the interface, question quality and usability of our practice exams before you decide to buy it.

If you need to buy, please visit here E20-661.

If you need to buy EMC certification in other subjects, please visit here EMC certification.

Free E20-661 Questions and Answers Demo

1. Your customer is unable to access Data Mover file systems by hostname, but is able to access them by
IP address from HostA. HostB can access the Data Mover by hostname and IP address. What is the
cause?
A. lmhosts is empty
B. Duplicate IP address
C. Bad entry in HostA's hosts file
D. DNS reverse lookup entry is missing
Answer: C

2. Which command is used on a UNIX host to display all of the processes that are running?
A. ps
B. tail
C. grep
D. egrep
Answer: A

3. A new level of EMCNAS code is now available. Where do you obtain the release notes?
A. C4 Web Site
B. CCA Web Site
C. www.emc.com
D. Celerra Web Site
Answer: D

4. Which protocol is designed to synchronize computer clocks over a network?
A. FTP
B. NTP
C. CIFS
D. DHCP
Answer: B

5. Which command is used on a Sun host to obtain the Ethernet address of a network adapter?
A. eth0
B. NDD
C. ifconfig
D. ipconfig
Answer: C

6. What does an Amber LED flashing 4 times a second indicate about an NS series Data Mover?
A. Has a fault
B. Still booting
C. Running POST
D. Running BIOS activity
Answer: B

7. Which command is used to view the current default route on a Data Mover?
A. server_route
B. server_ifconfig
C. server_sysstat
D. server_ipconfig
Answer: A

8. Click the Exhibit button.
During an NS series installation, when presented with the option to configure "LAN networking". Which
configuration will selecting the "Yes" (default) or "No" option allow you to perform?
A. "Yes" to configure the Control Station and Data Mover internal network
B. "No" to allow the internal network to be configured by the installation script
C. "Yes" to configure the Control Station's network connection to the customer's network
D. "Yes" to configure the Control Station's internal network for communication with Data Mover(s)
Answer: C

9. You have been engaged to replace an obsolete Celerra Data Mover with a new model. Which web site
provides current information on the procedure?
A. C4
B. NSG
C. Primus
D. NAS Support
Answer: D

10. Which layers of the Open System Interconnection (OSI) does the ping utility test?
A. Physical and Data Link
B. Network and Transport
C. Physical, Data Link, and Network
D. Data Link, Network and Transport
Answer: C

11. Which file is edited to configure a kickstart installation?
A. setup.cfg
B. install.cfg
C. ksnas.cfg
D. kickstart.cfg
Answer: C

12. A host has the following IP address and default gateway. Select the subnet mask that will allow the
host to access remote networks.
IP address: 10.6.230.196
default gateway: 10.6.128.1
A. 255.255.128.0
B. 255.255.192.0
C. 255.255.224.0
D. 255.255.255.0
Answer: A

13. What are the destination addresses of devices that can receive packets?
A. Multicast, Simulcast and Unicast
B. Broadcast, Multicast and Unicast
C. Anycast, Broadcast and Multicast
D. Broadcast, Groupcast and Unicast
Answer: B

14. Which tools are used to analyze network packets?
A. finger, snoop, tcpdump
B. Netmon, snoop, tracert
C. Ethereal, Netmon, netstat
D. snoop, Ethereal, tcpdump
Answer: D

15. Which command is used to test dialhome?
A. ch_dd
B. ch_test
C. ch_dialin_enable
D. callhome.phone_calls
Answer: B

16. What is one method of finding the WWN's on a Data Mover?
A. server_log
B. server_route
C. server_ifconfig
D. server_sysstat
Answer: A

17. How many Celerra/CLARiiON LUNs are created in a 8 + 1 RAID 5 configuration?
A. 2
B. 4
C. 6
D. 8
Answer: A

18. What is NDMP?
A. A System Management program
B. A Backup Protocol
C. An Operation system
D. A Virus checking system
Answer: B

19. What is the minimum disk configuration for a Celerra/CLARiiON implementation?
A. 2 disks and 1 hot spare
B. 4 disks and 1 hot spare
C. 5 disks and 1 hot spare
D. 8 disks and 1 hot spare
Answer: C

20. In which directory is the osmlog found?
A. /var/log
B. /nas/log
C. /nas/var/log
D. /nas/server/log
Answer: B

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It is well known that E20-570 exam test is the hot exam of EMC certification. Exam Code: E20-570, Exam Name: Networked Storage cas specialist.

Here we offer a free trial part of the E20-570 exam (Including questions and answers). This will be your best E20-570 self-study training. You can check out the interface, question quality and usability of our practice exams before you decide to buy it.

If you need to buy, please visit here E20-570.

If you need to buy EMC certification in other subjects, please visit here EMC certification.

Free E20-570 Questions and Answers Demo

1. Which tool provides the diagnostics screens for the Centera?
A. CASScript
B. CenteraCLI
C. CenteraScript
D. CenteraViewer
Answer: D

2. What is a method for setting retention at the object level?
A. API
B. HPP
C. MOPI
D. Control Center
Answer: A

3. A customer wants to enable application profiles in their environment.
Their application does NOT natively support application profile use.
How does this windows application specify a path to the application security profile?
A. Have the application access the root profile on the Centera
B. Application keeps the security profile as part of the metadata
C. Create a profile and place it in the ini file of the application; then restart the application
D. Add the CENTERA_PEA_LOCATION environment variable to the windows application server
Answer: D

4. Click the Exhibit button. From the exhibit, identify component A.
A. Node
B. Cube switch
C. Battery backup
D. External switch
Answer: B

5. A customer with CE+ needs many different retention periods but their application does NOT support a
native integration of the API.   How does a customer meet this requirement?
A. Migrate all data to a native application
B. All data will have an infinite retention period
C. It is impossible to use retention periods for non-native applications
D. Use a filesystem-based gateway with different retention periods set on each shared folder
Answer: D

6. How does fixed content differ from backup data?
A. Fixed content is a subset of backup data
B. Fixed content has long-term reference value
C. Backup data sets are a subset of fixed content
D. Backup data sets can include multiple revisions of a file while Fixed content is WORM data
Answer: B

7. What is required to store data on the Centera?
A. Centera API
B. Centera CLI
C. CenteraViewer
D. Centera store software
Answer: A

8. How would a PC be connected to a CUA if a standard monitor and keyboard were not available onsite?
A. Via crossover serial cable and a terminal emulator configured for 7 1 Even
B. Via crossover serial cable and a terminal emulator configured for 8 1 None
C. Via straight through serial cable and a terminal emulator configured for 7 1 Even
D. Via straight through serial cable and a terminal emulator configured for 8 1 None
Answer: B

9. How long does content reside on a CUA before it is written to a Centera?
A. One minute, depending on system load
B. Typically 45 minutes or when cache is full
C. Content is immediately written to the Centera
D. Content is not written directly to the Centera by the CUA
Answer: B

10. Which protection scheme provides maximum useable storage?
A. CPM
B. CPP
C. RAID 4
D. RAID 1/0
Answer: B

11. Click the Exhibit button. What is the BLOB?
A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D
Answer: B

12. Which algorithm is used to help calculate the content address?
A. API
B. MD5
C. MOBI
D. SHA-1
Answer: B

13. What is required to link two (2) Centera cabinets in one (1) cluster?
A. ATS
B. Root switches
C. Media converter
D. Gigabit uplink modules
Answer: D

14. How is the Centera connected to the mainframe?
1.        ESCON 2.      HTTP 3.      FICON 4.     TCPIP
A. 1, 2, 3
B. 1, 2, 4
C. 1, 3, 4
D. 2, 3, 4
Answer: C

15. Which vendors offer gateway software for the Centera?
A. Microsoft, SAP, Onyx, Dell
B. IBM, Lotus, FileNet, StorageTek
C. Legato, EMC, SevenTen, Arkivio, Enigma
D. Powerfile, Oracle, Mobius, Princeton Softech
Answer: C

16. Which objects are replicated when replication is enabled?
A. All objects
B. Only CDFs
C. Only data BLOBs
D. Only objects greater than 250K
Answer: A

17. A customer's application groups objects into a single container before writing them to the Centera.
The customer is using a Centera CE+.
Half of the objects should be kept for 3 years, and the remainder for 7 years.
Which retention period should the customer set on the container to protect their data?
A. Do not set the retention period
B. Set the retention period to 3 years
C. Set the retention period to 7 years
D. Set the retention period to 50% 3 year, and 50% 7 year.
Answer: C

18. Which troubleshooting utilities are available for the Centera?
A. Centera Verify and Telnet
B. Ping and CenteraIPconfig
C. CenteraPing and CenteraVerify
D. CenteraViewer and PingCentera
Answer: C

19. What is the purpose of Centera Verify?
A. Verify a completed write
B. Verify Centera ead and write?performance
C. Verify availability of the Centera for writes, reads and deletes
D. Verify availability of the target Centera in a replicated environment
Answer: C

20. A customer is required to keep dental records for seven years.
Which edition of Centera is recommended?
A. Basic
B. Compliance
C. Enhanced basic
D. Compliance plus
Answer: B

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It is well known that E20-593 exam test is the hot exam of EMC certification. Exam Code: E20-593, Exam Name: Backup & Recovery Implementation Exam.

Here we offer a free trial part of the E20-593 exam (Including questions and answers). This will be your best E20-593 self-study training. You can check out the interface, question quality and usability of our practice exams before you decide to buy it.

If you need to buy, please visit here E20-593.

If you need to buy EMC certification in other subjects, please visit here EMC certification.

Free E20-593 Questions and Answers Demo

1. Which NetWorker command can be used to find out the dates that a specific save set has been backed
up?
A.mminfo
B.mmls
C.nsrinfo
D.nsrls
Answer: A

2. You are designing a backup schedule for a file system that changes frequently.
Which NetWorker weekly backup schedule results in the fastest recovery?
A.Full incr incr incr incr incr incr
B.Full 1 2 3 4 5 6
C.Full 4 7 4 7 4 7
D.Full 8 8 8 8 8 8
Answer: D

3. Which NetWorker server daemon is responsible for starting other server and storage node daemons?
A.nsrd
B.nsrjobd
C.nsrmmdbd
D.nsrmmgd
Answer: A

4. You want to make sure that only NetWorker Server S1 can back up client C1's data. What do you need
to do?
A.Add C1 to /nsr/res file on the NetWorker Server S1
B.Add C1 to /nsr/res/clients file on the NetWorker Server S1
C.Add S1 to /nsr/res/permissions on the client machine C1
D.Add S1 to /nsr/res/servers file on the client machine C1
Answer: D

5. You noticed that a full level save set is still browsable even after its browse time has expired. What
could be the cause?
A.A clone of the save set exists and has a longer retention period
B.Incremental save sets depending upon this full save set are still
browsable
C.The volume containing the save set is still browsable
D.There was a read error on the volume containing the save set, giving it
a "suspect" status
Answer: B

6. The status of a volume was prematurely set to full. Which command can be used to change the status
of the volume to continue writing to it?
A.jbedit
B.mminfo
C.nsrck
D.nsrmm
Answer: D

7. You are designing a solution for a customer using NetWorker and PowerSnap, to create and back up
copy on write (CoW) snapshots of a STD device on a DMX-3 accessed from a Solaris 9 application host.
The STD volume size is 300 GB with a change rate of 10%.
What is the minimum VDEV (Virtual Device) size needed?
A.30 GB
B.270 GB
C.300 GB
D.330 GB
Answer: C

8. Which NetWorker Management Console server daemon acts as a mini web server and responds to the
initial http request from console clients?
A.dbsrv9
B.gstd
C.gsttclsh
D.nsrd
Answer: C

9. Which NetWorker feature allows writing more than one save set at a time?
A.Advanced file type device
B.Multiplexing
C.Open tape format
D.Remote backup device
Answer: B

10. A customer wants to back up two NetWorker clients at the same time every day.
Which NetWorker resource is configured to include both clients?
A.Group
B.Policy
C.Pool
D.Schedule
Answer: A

11. Which NetWorker process initiates negotiation with nsrd during a client-initiated backup?
A.nsrexecd
B.nsrindexd
C.nsrlcpd
D.nsrmmdbd
Answer: A

12. Which NetWorker daemon is responsible for the communication between nsrjb and the user
interface?
A.nsrd
B.nsrexecd
C.nsrlcpd
D.nsrmmgd
Answer: D

13. Which NetWorker process runs on each storage node?
A.nsrd
B.nsrexecd
C.nsrjobd
D.nsrmmd
Answer: D

14. What manages a NetWorker remote device?
A.A host outside the NetWorker data zone
B.A storage node other than the NetWorker server
C.Another NetWorker server
D.Remote administration tools
Answer: B

15. In an EDL environment, what describes the use of Tape Cloning with the embedded storage node
once the data has been backed up to virtual tape?
A.Backup application issues clone command; EDL copies save sets to
physical tape with different barcode
B.Backup application issues clone command; EDL copies save sets to
physical tape with same barcode
C.Backup application issues eject command; EDL moves backup data to
physical tape with different barcode
D.Backup application issues eject command; EDL moves backup data to
physical tape with same barcode
Answer: A

16. A company wants to use a CX3-80 with FLARE 24 as a backup-to-disk destination device. ATA disks
are being included as part of the solution.
Which RAID type should be used?
A.RAID 0
B.RAID 3
C.RAID 5
D.RAID 1/0
Answer: C

17. You are configuring two LUNs with 1.5 TB each in a CLARiiON CX3-80.
They will be used as backup-to-disk destination devices on a single Windows NetWorker server.
Which license (option) is needed?
A.ClientPak
B.Disk Backup
C.Storage Node
D.Virtual Tape Library
Answer: B

18. Which process monitors active recover sessions?
A.ansrd
B.nsrd
C.nsrdbd
D.nsrexecd
Answer: A

19. Which Celerra NS/CLARiiON tool is used to replicate both data and catalog to a remote site?
A.SRDF
B.MirrorView
C.Celerra SnapSure
D.Celerra Replicator
Answer: B

20. In a Windows environment, the NetWorker nsrd process will not start because the resource database
is corrupt.
How can the resource information be recovered?
A.Remove ...\nsr\index, start nsrd, and run mmrecov
B.Remove ...\nsr\res, start nsrd, and run mmrecov
C.Rename ...\nsr\index, start nsrd, and run recover
D.Rename ...\nsr\mm, start nsrd, and run mmrecov
Answer: B

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