Archive for the ‘Cisco’ Category
646-046 self-study training
Free 646-046 exam Questions and Answers
It is well known that 646-046 exam test is the hot exam of Cisco certification. Exam Code: 646-046, Exam Name: Advanced Routing and Switching for Account Managers.
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1. What are the four key benefits of Cisco SDM? (Choose four.) A.ease of use B.troubleshooting C.integrated security D.IEEE authentication E.application intelligence F.graphical monitoring and access Answer:A B E F 2.Cisco Catalyst Express 500 Series switches are positioned for which market segment? A.Telecommuter home office B.Small branch office of less than 250 employees C.Medium-sized branch office of between 250 and 500 employees D.Large office of between 500 and 1,000 employees Answer:B 3.Which toolset provides efficiency by manually and uniformly indicating respective priority levels in frame and packet headers? A.auto QoS B.CAC tools C.classification and marking tools D.link-specific tools Answer:C 4.What feature of a hierarchical network design that includes a core layer, a distribution layer, and an access layer helps ensure that employees will always have access to critical business applications? A.A minimal configuration at the core layer B.Standby switches configured with regular failover at the distribution layer C.Standby switches configured with regular failover at the access layer D.Dual paths from layer to layer Answer:D 5.What are three business-related benefits of a converged network environment? (Choose three.) A.IP routers and switches do not need to be upgraded as often. B.Employee productivity increases due to a broader range of network accessibility. C.Systems operators have dual user interface access to converged network functions. D.There is less time needed for network training and management. E.Routers and switches can move traditional network data and voice and video data. F.Routers and swtiches can move voice and video data, but not traditional network data. Answer:B D E
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650-059 self-study training
Free 650-059 exam Questions and Answers
It is well known that 650-059 exam test is the hot exam of Cisco certification. Exam Code: 650-059, Exam Name: LCSARS Cisco Lifecycle Services Advanced Routing and Switching.
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1. Which two of these activities comprise the problem management service component in the operat phase? (choose two.) A. send a replacement module B. schedule a maintenance window C. manage the problem D. identify the problem E. confirm roles and responsibilities Answer: CD 2. Identify a customer support model for the solution is an activity thet is part of which service component in the plan phase? A. operations readiness assessment B. planning project kickoff (deployment project management) C. operations plan development D. system requirements validation Answer: A 3. Which three of these service components are included in the optimize phase? (choose three.) A. change management B. security administration C. technology assessment D. operations assessment E. operations readiness assessment F. security assessment Answer: CDF 4. Utilizing a trouble ticketing system to track problems is a part of which service component in the operate phase? A. operations setup B. change management C. problem management D. systems monitoring Answer: C 5. Execute the systems acceptance test plan is an activity that is part of which service component in the implement phase? A. phased implementation B. acceptance testing C. staff training D. full system migration Answer: B
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646-590 self-study training
Free 646-590 exam Questions and Answers
It is well known that 646-590 exam test is the hot exam of Cisco certification. Exam Code: 646-590, Exam Name: Lifecycle Services Advanced Wireless(LCSAWLAN).
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1.Which of these activities comprises the service component of WLAN Site Readiness Assessment (RF Survey)? A.Conduct Customer Site Survey, Perform Site Gap Analysis, Develop Site Requirements Specification Report, Gather and Verify Customer Network Information, Perform Gap Analysis B.Collect and Verify Information About Current Operations Support Infrastructure, Identify Customer Support for WLAN, Analyze Customer Operational Infrastructure C.Perform Automated Scan of Ports To Determine Potential Vulnerabilities; Produce Network Map of Devices, Operating System, and Services Being Offered To the Network; Research and Confirm Registration of Target IP Address Space D.Execute a Series of System Performance Analyses To Provide a Holistic View of the Converged Network of the Customer, Perform an Infrastructure Audit, Complete Security Review of WLAN Infrastructure Correct:A 2.Which three service components are included in the optimize phase for WLAN? (Choose three.) A.Change Management B.Security Assessment C.Operations Assessment D.Security Administration E.Operations Readiness Assessment F.Technology Assessment Correct:B C F 3.Compiling a Business Case Alignment Report highlights which one of these? A.Areas in which current WLAN system is not meeting objectives and requirements identified in the prepare phase B.Ensures that the wireless network is ready and technical details are properly specified and implemented to reduce the possibility of errors or delays C.Reduces the risk and complications of deploying, managing, and operating wireless network infrastructures D.Uncovers operational inefficiencies, improves productivity, and reduces resolution time for technical issues E.Produces a network map of devices, operating system, and services being offered to the network F.Identifies critical deficiencies by analyzing and reviewing data and comparing test results with current operational requirements Correct:A 4.Consider these activities: "Security review of the WLAN infrastructure", "Performing an infrastructure audit", and "Creating a performance baseline and executing a series of system performance analyses to provide a holistic view of the converged network of the customer". Which one of these service components involves these activities? A.Security Administration B.Operations Assessment C.Security Assessment D.Technology Assessment E.Business Case Alignment Correct:D 5.During Implementation Plan Development, which three of these templates and tools are leveraged to complete the tasks of "reviewing network and site remediation plans and execution status", "identifying implementation risk", and "creating site-specific risk management plans"? (Choose three.) A.Low Level Design B.WLAN Project Plan C.Escalation Plan D.Operations Support Plan E.Site Readiness Assessment Report F.Network Implementation Plan Correct:A E F 6.Drop Correct: Green choice2---->Yellow Choice1 Green choice3---->Yellow Choice2 Green choice1---->Yellow Choice3 Green choice5---->Yellow Choice4 Green choice4---->Yellow Choice5 7.Which three templates or tools are important in creating a site-specific network implementation plan? (Choose three.) A.Operations Plan B.Staging Plan C.Low Level Design D.Network Implementation Plan E.Acceptance Test Plan F.Site Readiness Assessment Report Correct:C D F 8.You, as a Cisco partner, are implementing a Voice over WLAN project for a large Enterprise Campus. Which of these skill profiles should be the lead engineer on this project? A.routing expert B.Enterprise voice expert C.Enterprise WLAN expert D.Cisco security expert E.switching expert Correct:C 9.Which three of these tasks occur in Incident Management? (Choose three.) A.Define Service Level Requirements and Priority for Each Device B.Devise and Recommend Workaround Solution if Means of Resolving Is Unknown C.Correlate and Analyze Symptoms To Determine Probable Cause D.Establish Escalation Notification Plan E.Gather Symptom Information Including Traces, Logs, and Events F.Populate Ongoing Support Handoff Kit Correct:B C E 10.Which two templates, tools, or reference materials are used in the Business Case Development service component of the prepare phase? (Choose two.) A.Income Statement B.ROI Required Information Checklist C.Financial Justification Case Study D.Preliminary Discovery Document-Gap Analysis E.Value Assessment Worksheet F.Statement of Change in Financial Position Correct:B C
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642-591 self-study training
Free 642-591 exam Questions and Answers
It is well known that 642-591 exam test is the hot exam of Cisco certification. Exam Code: 642-591, Exam Name: Implementing Cisco NAC Appliance.
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1.The NAS is configured to autogenerate an IP address pool of 30 subnets with a netmask of /30, beginning at address 192.168.10.0. Which IP address is leased to the end-user host on the second subnet? A.192.168.10.4 B.192.168.10.5 C.192.168.10.6 D.192.168.10.7 Correct:C 2.Which default administrator group has delete permissions? A.admin B.help-desk C.add-edit D.full-control Correct:D 3.What is the result when the condition statement in a Cisco NAA check for required software evaluates to false on a client machine? A.The required software is automatically downloaded to the user device. B.The required software is made available after the user is quarantined. C.The user is put in the unauthenticated role and the software is considered missing. D.The user is placed in the temporary role and the software is made available. Correct:B 4.Which three components comprise a Cisco NAC Appliance solution? (Choose three.) A.a NAC-enabled Cisco router B.a Linux server for in-band or out-of-band network admission control C.a Linux server for centralized management of network admission servers D.a Cisco router to provide VPN services E.a read-only client operating on an endpoint device F.a NAC-enabled Cisco switch Correct:B C E 5.Drop Correct: Green choice1---->Yellow Choice3 Green choice6---->Yellow Choice2 Green choice4---->Yellow Choice1 6.Drop Correct: Green choice1---->Yellow Choice6 Green choice2---->Yellow Choice4 Green choice3---->Yellow Choice5 Green choice4---->Yellow Choice1 Green choice5---->Yellow Choice2 Green choice6 >Yellow Choice3 choice6---->Yellow 7.When configuring the Cisco NAM to implement Cisco NAA requirement checking on client machines, what is the next step after configuring checks and rules? checks A.retrieve updates B.require the use of the Cisco NAA C.configure session timeout and traffic policies D.map rules to requirement E.configure requirements Correct:E 8.Refer to the exhibit. When logging in to a Cisco NAC Appliance solution, an end user is prompted for a username, password, and provider. What should be entered in the Provider drop-down field shown in the exhibit? drop down A.the authenticating NAS B.the authorizing NAM C.the name of the ISP D.the external authenticating server Correct:D 9.What are the two types of traffic policies that apply to user roles? (Choose two.) A.IP-based A.IP B.peer-based B.peer based C.host-based C.host based D.manager- D.manager-based E.server-based E.server based F.VLAN-based F.VLAN based Correct:A C 10.After you implement a network scan and view the report, you notice that a plug in did not plug-in access any of its dependent plug ins. What did you forget to do? plug-ins. A.enable the Dependent Plug in check box on the General Tab form Plug-in B.configure dependent plug in support when you mapped the Nessus scan check to the Nessus plug in plug-inrule C.install dependent plug ins when you updated the Cisco NAC Appliance plug in library C.install D.load the dependent plug ins for that plug in in the Plug in Updates form Correct:D
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350-027 self-study training
Free 350-027 exam Questions and Answers
It is well known that 350-027 exam test is the hot exam of Cisco certification. Exam Code: 350-027, Exam Name: CCIE Written: Metro Ethernet.
Here we offer a free trial part of the 350-027 exam (Including questions and answers). This will be your best 350-027 self-study training. You can check out the interface, question quality and usability of our practice exams before you decide to buy it.
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1.What kind of packet is being decoded, using the captured debug mpls l2transport packet data
command, below?
A.HDLC
B.PPP
C.Ethernet
D.RFC 2427/RFC1490
Correct:D
2.What Q.931 message cannot be received in response to sending a Q.931 SETUP message?
A.Alerting
B.Call Proceeding
C.Connect
D.USER Information
E.Progress
Correct:D
3.The Hold-Down Timer used in Distance Vector protocols:
A.Sets the time limit of how long a router may keep a packet in its buffer, if the routing protocol is in the
process of converging
B.Determines the number of seconds a router will wait before sending another update to neighbor routers
C.Sets a specific period for routers to neither accept nor advertise a route from a destination where an
original route was recently lost
D.Sets a duration where routes are not accepted from the neighbor router that caused a routing loop
Correct:C
4.Click the Exhibit button. PE1 and PE2 are connected to the MPLS cloud. All MPLS labels from
PE1 and PE2 are working. Observing the shown topology, will this scenario work?
A.This scenario will not work because Gigabit Ethernet can't be connected to FastEthernet over MPLS.
B.This scenario will work because the issues concerning Gigabit and FastEthernet over MPLS with
default behavior should not make any difference.
C.This scenario will not work because Gigabit usually has MTU over 9000 and FastEthernet 1500.
D.This scenario will not work because one side has dot1q header and another side is in port mode.
E.This scenario will work by configuring PWE Class using the Interworking feature. By default, the MTU
on each side is 1500, so this is an acceptable solution.
Correct:E
5.Which do NOT exist?
A.Per VLAN Spanning Tree (PVST).
B.Per VLAN Spanning Tree Plus (PVST+).
C.Per VLAN Spanning Tree Plus Plus (PVST++).
D.Rapid STP (RSTP).
E.Resilient STP (RSTP).
Correct:C E
6.Which commands are valid in ethernet or ethernet VLAN attachment circuits?
A.match cos
B.match ethernet cos
C.match source-mac
D.match vlan
E.match ethernet multicast
Correct:A D
7.OSPF is defined on a Frame Relay interface providing point-to-multipoint connections. The
remote neighbors can reach this central site, but are complaining of routing failures between each
of the remote sites. The central router has all the routes for each remote site. Based on this
information, what can be diagnosed as the biggest potential problem?
A.An over-subscribed Frame Relay switch will cause some packet loss.
B.There are problems in the use of OSPF Authentication.
C.There is an incorrect selection of the Designated Router.
D.There is an incorrect DLCI assigned on a point-to-point sub-interface.
Correct:C
8.EIGRP applies the principle of Feasible Successor (FS) in resolving a new path to a lost route.
What statement regarding the FS is correct?
A.Information is stored for the FS as part of the Link-State Routing updates forwarded for EIGRP.
B.EIGRP estimates the FS from each neighbor for each network after an exchange of database
information during the normal update process. It uses this information for path selection when a route is
lost.
C.When EIGRP is notified that a route is lost, it will always send requests to each neighbor for ways to
reach the lost route. The neighbor that returns the best path will qualify as the FS.
D.EIGRP nominates a central router as the FS for all lost routes during configuration.
Correct:B
9.What technology allows transporting Layer2 attachment circuits over IP-only backbones?
A.GRE
B.AToM
C.L2TPv3
D.DLSW+
Correct:C
10.Which are supported ways of transporting ATM over MPLS?
A.AAL5 SDU VC Mode
B.AAL5 SDU VP Mode
C.Packet Cell Relay AAL5 Trunk Mode
D.Packed Cell Relay Trunk mode
E.AAL2oMPLS
Correct:A C
11.What IE is not mandatory in a Q.931 Service msg?
A.Bearer capability
B.Channel ID
C.Message Type
D.Change Status
E.Call Reference
Correct:A
12.Which statements are true regarding VPLS?
A.There is a full mesh of pseudowires.
B.There is a partial mesh of pseudowires.
C.Only L2TPv3 can be used for pseudowire establishment.
D.STP runs in the core.
E.There is split-horizon to avoid loops.
Correct:A E
13.How many bits does TCI contain?
A.1
B.3
C.6
D.12
E.16
F.20
Correct:E
14.What command is used for Interworking configuration?
A.`interworking {etherner | ip} in interface config mode.
B.`interworking {etherner | ip} in pseudowire-class config mode.
C.`Interworking {bridged | routed} in l2tp-class mode.
D.`{ip | ethernet}Interworking in pseudowire-class config mode.
Correct:B
15.A router is set to boot from flash, but cannot find boot commands in the configuration. Also,
valid files do not exist in the default flash device. The router will:
A.Boot from ROM, since there are no valid sources
B.Try to boot from the network, using a default filename
C.Terminate the boot process with an error message
D.Try to boot from the network, then boot from ROM as a backup
Correct:D
16.What specification defines LACP?
A.IEEE 802.11
B.IEEE 802.1q and IEEE 802.1p
C.IEEE 802.3ad
D.ITU Q.922
E.RFC2547
Correct:C
17.Estimating the MTU for EoMPLS Packets Edge MTU of 1500, Transport header, AToM header
present, MPLS label, and stack MPLS Label, calculate the core MTU requirements to handle
EoMPLS port mode packets.
A.1518
B.1520
C.1524
D.1526
Correct:D
18.What protocol is not disabled by the 'no service tcp-small-servers' command?
A.Echo
B.Finger
C.Chargen
D.Discard
E.Daytime
Correct:B
19.Click the Exhibit button to view the topology. According to the diagram, what attribute is
initiated by AS200 (IBGP) to give preference to the path A or D traffic will take when going from
AS200 to AS100? What attribute is initiated by AS200 (EBGP) to give preference to the path B or C
traffic will take when going from AS100 to AS200?
A.MED; Origin
B.MED; Local Preference
C.Community; Origin
D.Local Preference; MED
E.Origin; Community
Correct:D
20.Which are components of VPLS?
A.BGP extensions
B.Pseudowire technology
C.LDP extensions
D.Etherchannel technology
E.MAC Address learning and forwarding on a virtual port
Correct:A B E
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646-228 self-study training
Free 646-228 exam Questions and Answers
It is well known that 646-228 exam test is the hot exam of Cisco certification. Exam Code: 646-228, Exam Name: Lifecycle Services Advanced IP Communications(LSAIPC).
Here we offer a free trial part of the 646-228 exam (Including questions and answers). This will be your best 646-228 self-study training. You can check out the interface, question quality and usability of our practice exams before you decide to buy it.
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1. The staff training template is one of the templates and/or tools identified as essential for the informal advanced training for administration and operations activity during the implement phase. What is the other resource that is used to accomplish this activity? A. Lessons Learned template B. IPC Project Plan C. Phone Deployment Kit D. System Requirements Validation Report E. As Built Documentation Answer: E 2. Which template is used to define the specifics of a flash or phased implementation strategy? A. Business Requirements Document B. Network Implementation Plan C. High Level Design D. IPC Project Plan E. Optimization Report F. Installation Guide Answer: B 3. In the optimize phase, the call processing assessment activity contains the establish call volume baselining task. Which template or tool documents the call volumes? A. Bridge Traffic Analyzer B. Microsoft Performance and Event Monitor C. Operational Assessment Checklist D. Continuous Improvement Plan E. CDR Analysis and Reporting Tool Answer: E 4. Which two are phases of a project life cycle? (Choose two.) A. Plan B. Business Requirements Definition C. Network Readiness Assessment D. Operational Readiness Assessment E. Design Answer: AE 5. Within the prepare phase, which two tasks are required to begin the prepare for business requirements workshop activity? (Choose two.) A. Document User-Level Functionality Requirements B. Document Vertical Business Initiatives Requirements C. Identify key stakeholders for the Business Requirements Development Workshop D. Conduct a Solution Value Assessment E. Send Invitations F. Document Corporate Business Initiatives Requirements Answer: CE 6. During the plan phase, which template is used during the assess and document infrastructure requirements for the proposed solution task? A. Site Requirements Specification Document B. IPC Project Plan C. Staging Plan D. Vertical Industry Snapshots E. Operational Assessment Checklist Answer: A 7. A good change management process incorporates consistent processes for any planned network change. What should be included in the change management process? A. Create the low-level design and solution design specifics. B. Monitor announcements of upgrades and new releases. C. Conduct detailed design business requirements gap analysis. D. Finalize end user training strategy. Answer: B 8. A customer requires Cisco CallManager and Cisco MeetingPlace to accomplish business and technology goals. Which two activities must be conducted during the System Design Workshop? (Choose two.) A. Design Network Management and Operations Infrastructure B. Design Agent and Supervisor Desktop Configurations C. Design Rich Media System D. Design Call Control System E. Design Messaging System Answer: CD 9. In the design phase, which task is conducted during the host physical design workshop activity? A. Finalize Legacy Integration including Legacy Voice, Data and Active Directory B. Develop Quality of Service Specifications C. Design Dial Plan Architecture and Emergency Call Routing D. Define Message Store Options and Sizing E. Identify Network Management Design Objectives Answer: B 10. Within the implement phase, which activity is associated with the define project visibility progress reports and procedures task? A. Develop Communications Plan B. Informal Basic Training C. Internal Kickoff Meeting D. Informal Advanced Training for Admin and Operations Staff E. Develop Escalation Plan Answer: A
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350-030 self-study training
Free 350-030 exam Questions and Answers
It is well known that 350-030 exam test is the hot exam of Cisco certification. Exam Code: 350-030, Exam Name: CCIE Voice Written.
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Free 350-030 Questions and Answers Demo
1.Which of the following statements outline the correct way to implement a non-standard softkey
template?
A.Select a softkey template; copy the template and rename it; insert it; modify the template and update
the changes.
B.Select a softkey template; rename it; modify it and update the changes.
C.Select the default softkey template, rename it; insert it; modify it and update the changes.
D.Select add softkey template, name it; update it; modify the template and update the changes.
Correct:A
2.Which port(s) must be opened on an IOS firewall to allow successful MGCP (Media Gateway
Control Protocol) message exchanges between a CallManager and an IOS MGCP PRI gateway?
A.TCP 2000 and TCP 2002
B.TCP 2427 and UDP 2428
C.UDP 2427
D.UDP 2427 and UDP 2428
E.UDP 2427 and TCP 2428
Correct:E
3.There are 2 remote sites and one main site. Each site has a CME router with many IP phones in
an IPT deployment. The Network Administrator wants to provide all of the phones voicemail
access using CUE. Which way can CUE be deployed?
A.Cisco Unity Express and the CME gateway at each site must be collocated in the same router chassis
providing voicemail access to local IP phones registered to local CME.
B.One Cisco Unity Express can be used at the main site with CME router providing voicemail access to all
the 3 sites.
C.One Cisco Unity Express with CME can be used at the main site to provide voicemail access to the IP
phones at the main site. Another Cisco Unity Express with CME can be used at one of the remote sites to
provide voicemail access for all of the IP phones at the two remote sites.
D.Cisco Unity Express and the CME gateway at each site may NOT be collocated in the same router
chassis providing a voicemail access to local IP phones registered to local CME.
Correct:A
4.Which of the following are NOT true statements about Certificate Trust List (CTL) File? (Choose
2)
A.It is a list of devices and credentials that a phone should trust on the network.
B.The CTL file is signed by administrator workstation password.
C.It contains identity, public key and role information.
D.Phones need to trust all entries in the CTL file which could be CCM, TFTP, CAPF, etc.
E.The CTL file is loaded to the phone each time when authentication is required.
F.The CTL is created by CTL Client on administrator workstation.
Correct:B E
5.A CallManager Group can provide which two features to your call processing system? (Choose
2)
A.Support for SRST in remote offices
B.Enables you to distribute the control of devices across multiple Cisco CallManagers
C.Enables you to distribute voice mail support across multiple Unity servers
D.Support for redundancy by enabling you to designate a primary and backup Cisco CallManagers for
each group
E.Support for control of IPMA across primary and backup Cisco CallManagers for each group
Correct:B D
6.When comparing SIP, H.323, and MGCP, and SCCP in a VoIP deployment, which Protocol will
satisfy the following requirements: Requirement 1: It has a mechanism for a centralized dial-plan
Requirement 2: The endpoints are considered to be unintelligent Requirement 3: The protocol
must be text-based
A.SIP
B.H.323
C.MGCP
D.SCCP
Correct:C
7.Which 2 are NOT functions performed by Cisco Media Streaming App Service?
A.Provides SCCP stack for 4 software devices: ANN, CFB, MOH, and MTP
B.Supports DB change notification processing
C.Converts new MOH source files to separate WAV files for MOH codecs
D.Provides SDI trace, event logs, and Perfmon counters
E.Adjusts volume levels of MOH source files
F.Provides audio data from WAV files: ANN, MOH
Correct:C E
8.An IP phone is connected to a Cisco inline power switch Port. Switch is running IOS image on it.
The switch port is acting as a trunk and is running both Voice and Data VLAN configuration on it.
We would like the IP Phone connected to switch port in voice VLAN to set layer 2 priority of all the
packets coming from PC to default 0. Which IOS CLI in Interface Port configuration on Inline
power switch can help us achieve our objective?
A.switchport access priority extend cos 0
B.switchport priority extend cos 0
C.switchport trunk priority cos 0
D.switchport mode access priority extend cos 0
E.mls qos priority extend cos 0
F.switchport access extend cos 0
Correct:B
9.A company has a headquarters with a centralized CallManager and 5 remote offices. All the
remote offices have extensions in the range of 1000-1150. To allow inter-office calls each office
has been assigned a 3 digit site code. To call between sites, users will dial an access code
followed by the 3 digit site code and the extension. Which of the following describes how these
inter-office access codes should be configured?
A.A translation pattern is created for each office and placed in a partition available to all phones. The
translation pattern strips the access code and site code and is assigned a Calling Search Space that
includes only the phones located in the office.
B.A translation pattern is created for each office and is placed in a partition available to the phones at that
office. The translation pattern strips the access code and site code and is assigned to Calling Search
Space that includes all local phones.
C.A route pattern is created for each office and placed in a partition available to all phones. The route
pattern strips the access code and the site code and routes the call to the remote office's gateway.
D.A route pattern is created for each office and placed in a partition available to phones at that office. The
route pattern strips the access code and site code and routes the call to the remote office's gateway.
Correct:B
10.Which type of media resources would be required for a single site call processing model?
A.MTP
B.Locations
C.Regions
D.Transcoders
Correct:A
11.Which method could be used to determine if there is a JTAPI memory leak in a CallManager
server?
A.Look at the physical memory available of the server.
B.Review all CCM User logs
C.Check for changes to IP phone settings, like ring settings reverting to default values
D.Determine if dialing the voice mail pilot number fails to connect to voice mail
E.Check for an increasing number of fast busys when dialing to the PSTN
Correct:A
12.Which statement does NOT describe dialing domain functionality in Cisco Unity?
A.Dialing domains are multiple Unity servers that are handling subscribers that are on a single switch or
networked switch
B.All users in the dialing domain should be able to pick up their phones and dial each other directly
without having to dial trunk access codes or use outside lines.
C.Dialing domains are also necessary if the Unity servers involved don't have overlapping dial plans.
D.Dialing domain IDs are stored on the primary location object. Multiple primary location objects with the
same value for this ID make up a dialing domain.
E.All delivery locations get the same dialing domain ID as the primary location of the box they are created
on.
Correct:C
13.Two divisions in your company need to exchange Unity voice messages using VPIM. Calls from
Division A to Division B are made using a site code of "919" followed by the recipient's 4 digit
extension. The primary extension in Unity is the user's four digit extension. Which of the following
configurations on Division A's Unity server will allow messages to be forwarded between Unity
systems using the same seven digit dialing that is used to place direct calls? (Choose 3)
A.Add the seven digit number as an alternate extension to each VPIM subscriber
B.Configure the Extension on the VPIM subscriber to "919" plus the recipient's four digit extension
C.Configure the Remote Mailbox Number on the VPIM subscriber to the recipient's four digit extension
D.Configure the Remote Phone Prefix to "919"
E.Configure the Dial ID to "919"
Correct:B C E
14.When configuring IP Manager Assistant (IPMA) in a shared line mode, how are the manager
and assistant Directory Numbers (DN) configured?
A.The manager and assistant both share the same directory number (DN).
B.The manager and assistant have separate directory numbers (DN), but share an IPMA directory
number.
C.The manager and assistant each have separate directory numbers (DN).
D.The manager and assistant share a directory number (DN) and an IP Manager Assistant (IPMA)
directory number.
Correct:A
15.What occurs if the system clocks are not synchronized between the sender and receiver of an
RTP stream?
A.Packets can be placed in sequence but jitter cannot be compensated for.
B.Packets cannot be reordered for sequence and jitter cannot be compensated for.
C.Jitter can be compensated for, but packets cannot be reordered if they arrive out of sequence.
D.Packets may be reordered and jitter may be compensated for as the timestamp is not related to the
system time.
E.When the RTP stream is opened, the sender and receiver synchronize their clocks before the stream
commences so that packet sequencing and dejitter will function correctly.
Correct:D
16.Which 3 functions are NOT performed by a Route Pattern? (Choose 3)
A.Points to the actual IP phone
B.Matches dialed number for external calls
C.Performs digit manipulation
D.Points to a route list for routing
E.Chooses path for call routing
F.Points to prioritized route groups
Correct:A E F
17.Which one of the following does NOT state Multicast Technologies Advantages?
A.Enhanced Efficiency: controls network traffic and reduces server and CPU loads
B.Optimized Performance: eliminates traffic redundancy
C.Distributed Applications: makes multipoint applications possible
D.Bandwidth-conserving technology that reduces traffic by simultaneously delivering a single stream of
information to thousands of corporate recipients and homes
E.Prevent Denial of service (DoS) attacks in the networks
Correct:E
18.Why can't TCP be used for transferring audio and video over UDP? (Choose 5)
A.TCP does not have a mechanism for sufficiently long buffering and adequate average throughput.
B.Reliable transmission is inappropriate for delay-sensitive data such as real-time audio and video.
C.TCP cannot support multicast.
D.The TCP congestion control mechanisms decreases the congestion window when packet losses are
detected ("slow start").
E.TCP headers are larger than a UDP header.
F.TCP does not contain the necessary timestamp and encoding information needed by the receiving
application.
Correct:B C D E F
19.The IOS command "call rsvp-sync resv-timer 10" is used to set the timer on the:
A.Originating VoIP gateway for completing RSVP reservation setups within 10 seconds
B.Originating and terminating VoIP gateway for completing RSVP reservation setups within 10 seconds
C.Terminating VoIP gateway for completing RSVP reservation setups within 10 seconds
D.VoIP gatekeeper for completing RSVP reservation setups within 10 seconds
Correct:C
20.Calculate the percentage of overall bandwidth saved (at Layer 3) by cRTP for a G.729 VoIP call
packetized at 50 pps.
A.Approximately 60%
B.Approximately 50%
C.Approximately 40%
D.Approximately 30%
E.Approximately 20%
Correct:A
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1. Where do you enable the CRS engine? A. Publisher Activation page B. Component Activation page C. Cluster Setup page D. Server Setup page Answer: B 2. When a valid SQL Query in a DB Read step returns 0 rows, which branch of the step will be executed? A. Timeout B. SQL Error C. Successful D. Connection Not Available Answer: C 3. What three tasks are required to add a CRS application? (Choose three.) A. create a trigger B. create an application C. restart the CRS engine D. upload script to repository E. configure default session timeout Answer: ABD 4. CiscoWorks IP Telephony Environment Monitor (ITEM) provides what two serviceability capabilities? (Choose two.) A. Tool to collect syslog messages from multiple sources B. User Tracking to track IP telephones C. Diagnostic trace tools to analyze connectivity D. Monitoring of Cisco voice elements E. Problem alerts for operations personnel Answer: DE 5. When would the Cisco Supervisor Desktop fail to show an agent that is logged in? A. The agent is not ready. B. The agent is not on a call. C. The agent is an IP phone agent. D. The agent is not in the team currently being viewed by the supervisor. Answer: D 6. Where are CTI route points added or configured for Cisco Unified Contact Center Express? A. Cisco Unified CallManager Device Configuration B. Cisco Unified Contact Center Express Directory Management C. Cisco Supervisor Desktop D. Cisco CRS Administration, JTAPI Trigger Creation E. Cisco Unified Contact Center Express Media Subsystem Answer: D 7. What is a benefit of using subflows? A. decreases the amount of flows B. collects information about callers to agents C. creates a framework for CRS Server status reporting D. decreases latency through increased bandwidth on CRS Server E. provides more efficient management of flows that are called by multiple other flows Answer: E 8. What formula do you use to calculate the number of Voice Gateway ports? A. Erlang A B. Erlang B C. Erlang C D. IVR ports + agent phones Answer: B 9. Which configuration object can have skills assigned to it in Cisco Unified Contact Center Express? A. resources B. Skill Groups C. Resource Groups D. competence levels Answer: A 10. When using the Call Subflow step, can variables be shared between the parent (calling) flow and the subflow? A. No. B. Yes. C. Yes, but they must be manually passed via input and output mapping. D. Yes, but they must be manually created in both flows and have the same name. Answer: C
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1. Which three capabilities cannot be configured if the default dial peer is matched? (Choose three.) Select 3 response(s). A. disable DID B. invoke a Tcl application C. enable dtmf-relay D. disable VAD E. set codec to G.711 F. set preference to 1 Answer: BCD 2. Cisco CallManager 5.0 has just been deployed in two locations across a wide-area link. A distributed model with an intercluster trunk has been used. When you call an IP phone at the remote site the phone rings, but as soon as the other person picks up the phone, the call is dropped. Where should you look to diagnose the problem? Select the best response. A. locations B. system parameters C. media resource group D. Cisco Unified CallManager group E. Cisco Unified CallManager CTI traces Answer: C 3. Your company has a centralized IP Telephony system and branch offices in eight major cities. The manager of your company help desk recently published local access numbers for external customers to reduce the costs associated with your company's toll-free 800 service. However, when customers call the new local numbers they hear a reorder tone instead of your centralized IVR. What is the best solution to this issue? Select the best response. A. Deploy transcoders at each remote location. B. Deploy transcoders at the central location. C. Deploy Cisco Unified IP IVRs at each remote location. D. Increase the number of ports in the centralized IVR. Answer: B 4. You have received a trouble ticket stating that an executive with an account at a bank cannot retrieve account information by phone. When the executive calls the bank, the call is answered and the executive is prompted to enter the account code. However, the bank does not seem to recognize the DTMF tones and disconnects the call. What is a possible solution to this problem? Select the best response. A. Configure the voice rtp send-recv command in the gateway. B. Set the Cisco Unified CallManager service parameter ToSendH225UserInfoMsg to True. C. Configure the progress_ind setup enable 3 command under the gateway VoIP dial peer. D. Configure the progress_ind alert enable 8 command under the gateway POTS dial peer. Answer: A 5. Partition A contains four route patterns. The calling search space assigned to Device B contains only Partition A. When Device B dials 1136, which of the route patterns will be selected? Select the best response. A. 1[14]XX B. 11X! C. 1[^2-8]XX D. 1[1-4]XX Answer: B 6. You have received a trouble ticket that says users are experiencing echo when their calls go out an H.323 gateway. You have tested the gateway and have modified the configuration so that the ERL level is now 6 dB. You also increased the echo-cancel coverage value to 64 ms. How will this impact voice quality after this change? Select the best response. A. The increase in echo-cancel coverage will have no effect on voice quality. B. The ends of sentences will be chopped by the echo canceller. C. Consonants will be chopped by the echo canceller. D. The echo canceller will take 2-3 seconds longer to converge at the beginning of the call. Answer: D 7. Your company has recently installed a Cisco Unified CallManager cluster and a Cisco Unity voice mail platform. You have received complaints from users that the red MWI light never comes on, even when there are new voice-mail messages in the voice mailboxes. Which two steps must be taken to resolve this issue? (Choose two.) Select 2 response(s). A. Verify, using the Port Usage tool, that the ports dedicated to MWI on/off are not over-utilized. Add another dedicated port if the current port is over-utilized. B. Verify that the MWI on/off numbers are unique within the Cisco Unified CallManager cluster dial plan. If they are not, change the MWI on/off numbers in the Cisco Unified CallManager cluster so they are unique and configure the Cisco Unity server so they match. C. Ensure that the number of ports licensed for the Cisco Unity server is greater than or equal to the number of configured ports. D. Verify that the calls are being sent to the correct ports on the Cisco Unity server. If they are being sent to the incorrect ones by the Cisco Unified CallManager cluster, correct the values in the cluster. E. Verify that the same numbers are being used for MWI on/off in both the Cisco Unified CallManager cluster and Cisco Unity server. If they are different, change the Cisco Unity server to match the Cisco Unified CallManager cluster. Answer: BE 8. A company has migrated to a Cisco Unified CallManager IP Telephony system and is now replacing the existing voice-mail system with a Cisco Unity voice-mail system. A small group of users has been established to test the new voice mail system. The users were able to initialize their mailboxes and record greetings; however, during testing the callers were sometimes unable to leave voice-mail messages for Cisco Unity users. Which two issues could cause this problem? (Choose two.) Select 2 response(s). A. There is a mismatch in the number of ports configured in Cisco Unified CallManager and Cisco Unity. B. There is a mismatch in the MWI on/off numbers configured in Cisco Unified CallManager and Cisco Unity. C. The call transfer call handlers are not configured correctly. D. Cisco Unity is in a G.729 region and has not been configured to support G.729. E. The hunt group is hunting to Cisco Unity ports that have been dedicated for message notification. Answer: AE 9. Which Cisco Unity troubleshooting tool would be used to diagnose problems with skinny and MWI messages? Select the best response. A. Cisco Unity Performance Information and Diagnostics B. Unity Diagnostic Tool C. Integration Monitor D. SysCheck Answer: B 10. The following is a partial configuration of an access layer switch: mls qos map cos-dscp 0 8 12 16 28 32 40 48 mls qos! Voice bearer traffic will be set to use which per-hop behavior? Select the best response. A. EF B. CS4 C. AF32 D. AF12 E. BE Answer: B
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1. Cisco SMARTnet maintains the operational health of your network through Cisco expertise and resources that promote greater uptime and extend the value of your IT investment. Which service is provided by Cisco SMARTnet? A. upgrade discounts B. Free CCO account C. Cisco Learning Credits D. around-the-clock access to Cisco Technical Access Center Answer: D 2. How can mobile devices and wireless networks be secured? A. by securely deploying new applications with appropriate performance levels B. by providing security that is based on a multilayer, system-level approach C. by looking subjectively at network traffic for abnormal flows D. by requiring a host-based hardware application Answer: B 3. You are Cisco Channel Partner Account Managers in TestInside.com .Which service component within the prepare phase recommends the appropriate technology strategy to address a business requirement of the customer? A. finding out what a customer requires from a proposed solution B. analyzes the customer's business requirements and recommends the appropriate Cisco technologies to meet business requirements C. finding out what end-user training a customer requires D. finding out a customer's physical requirements Answer: B 4. Which two benefits of network integration would be critical to a large metropolitan hospital? (Choose two.) A. computerization of order entry for physicians B. compliance with HIPPA requirements C. improved bandwidth D. greater fault tolerance Answer: AB 5. You are Cisco Channel Partner Account Managers in TestInside.com. You need to explain why the banking industry is ready to take advantage of an integrated network infrastructure. What is your explanations? A. Because Banks are still connecting via dial-up. B. Because Banks need to save cost. C. Because Banks find themselves with an obsolete branch infrastructure. D. Many banks need back-office process streamlining. Answer: C 6. Which two series of routers can integrate security services, enable wireless networking, and simplify network management? (Choose two.) A. Cisco 830 Series routers B. Cisco 850 Series routers C. Cisco 1700 Series Modular Access Routers D. Cisco 3800 Series Integrated Services Routers Answer: BD 7. You are Cisco Channel Partner Account Managers in TestInside.com. You have a new client is growing fast. The client's IT staff change network manually and extremely overworked. You suggest him implement a network management system, which important business benefit you should address? A. saving his time B. provision of an out-of-band management architecture C. threat mitigation D. reduction in network downtime Answer: D 8. Because of the systems-level approach, Cisco security can defend against widespread attacks from hackers and viruses. What describes the Cisco network security strategy? A. Cisco Trust Agent B. Cisco Self-Defending Network C. Cisco Secure Access Control D. Cisco Network Admission Control Answer: B 9. You are Cisco Channel Partner Account Managers in TestInside.com. Please point out three service components are in the design phase. A. Qualification and Planning B. Detailed Design Development C. Staging Plan Development D. Systems Acceptance Test Plan Development Answer: BCD 10. What are two benefits of the Cisco 1800 Series Integrated Services Routers? (Choose two.) A. fixed configuration for secure broadband, metro Ethernet, and wireless connectivity B. configuration for security policy monitoring C. dynamic management through self-healing processes D. connectivity options and investment protection through support for existing Cisco 1700 Series WICs Answer: AD 11. Which three business requirements development activities are performed in the prepare phase before creating a technology strategy? (Choose three.) You are Cisco Channel Partner Account Managers in TestInside.com. Before creating a technology strategy, which three business requirements development activities should you perform in the prepare phase? A. Assessing customer business requirements B. Categorizing customer business requirements in terms of performance, availability, capacity, and security C. Writing a technology strategy document D. presenting documented business requirements to a customer and having the customer validate them Answer: ABD 12. Which type of security will allow businesses to focus on achieving business goals? A. point-product security B. endpoint security C. network infrastructure security D. secure access and threat defense Answer: C 13. Cisco Network Admission Control (NAC) allows only compliant and trusted endpoint devices, such as PCs, servers, and PDAs, onto the network, restricting the access of noncompliant devices, and thereby limiting the potential damage from emerging security threats and risks. Cisco NAC gives organizations a powerful, roles-based method of preventing unauthorized access and improving network resiliency .What is a Cisco industry initiative that uses the network infrastructure to enforce security policy compliance on all devices that are seeking to access the network? A. Adaptive Threat Defense B. Secure Access Control C. Network Admission Control D. Threat Defense System Answer: C 14. Whether an organization is a small or midsize business, an enterprise, or a service provider, there are certain key issues that are shared throughout the business environment. Which two choices best describe key customer security concerns? (Choose two.) A. increasing response time B. interacting with suppliers C. improving operational efficiency D. reducing complexity Answer: AD 15. The Cisco Catalyst 4500 Series Switch is a midrange modular platform for unified communications. It is designed for high resiliency, simplified operations, and maximum investment protection with backward and forward compatibility across generations .Cisco Catalyst 4500 Series switches are attractive to mid-size campuses with growth opportunities due to the switches' enhanced security . What are two other features for Cisco Catalyst 4500 Series switches? A. multilayer software image supports B. connect to different WAN connections C. modular, customizable components D. QoS for converged networks Answer: CD 16. The Channel Partner Program falls under which section of Cisco.com? A. Products and Solutions B. Ordering C. Technical Support and Documentation D. Partner Central Answer: D 17. Cisco Unified Communications 500 Series for Small Business, a critical part of the Cisco Smart Business Communications System, is a unified communications solution for small businesses that provides voice, data, voicemail. For which technology the Cisco UC520 provides integrated WLAN connectivity to mobile clients? A. voice only B. data only C. data and voice D. None of above Answer: C 18. In an integrated network, the network itself becomes the main point of control to prevent and respond to threats. What describes the Cisco vision to enable the network to identify, prevent, and adapt to security threats? A. Cisco Network Admission Control B. Cisco security solutions C. Cisco Self-Defending Network D. Cisco Integrated Wireless Network Answer: C 19. Cisco Unified Communications 500 Series for Small Business, a critical part of the Cisco Smart Business Communications System, is a unified communications solution for small businesses that provides voice, data, voicemail. Which three features does the Cisco UC520 support? A. distributed routing B. Cisco Unity Express C. security, firewall and VPN D. analog devices Answer: BCD 20. A small company that is considering a Cisco converged network solution has asked whether you recommend the Cisco 2800 or 3800 Series Integrated Services Routers. Which two resources would you consult to determine the appropriate product? (Choose two.) A. Partner Enablement Navigator B. Network Availability Improvement Support C. Products and Services at Cisco.com D. Cisco Focused Technical Support Answer: AC